Group Completion Theorem – Understanding the Concept in Algebraic Topology

at.algebraic-topologyhomotopy-theory

Let $M$ be a topological monoid. How does the homology-formulation of the group completion theorem, namely (see McDuff, Segal: Homology Fibrations and the "Group-Completion" Theorem)

If $\pi_0$ is in the centre of $H_*(M)$ then $H_*(M)[\pi_0^{-1}]\cong H_*(\Omega BM)$

imply that $M\to \Omega BM$ is a weak homotopy equivalence if $\pi_0(M)$ is already a group? I don't see the connection to homology. Can one prove the latter (perhaps weaker) statement more easily than the whole group completion theorem?

A topological group completion $G(M)$ of $M$ should transform the monoid $\pi_0(M)$ into its (standard algebraic) group completion. But a space with this property is not unique. Why is $\Omega BM$ the "right" choice? Perhaps this is clear when I see the connection to the homology-formulation above.

Best Answer

The statement that $M \to \Omega BM$ is a weak equivalence when $M$ is a group-like topological monoid is indeed easier: the map $EM = B(M \wr M) \to BM$ is then a quasi-fibration, has geometric fibre $M$ over the basepoint and homotopy fibre $\Omega BM$.

However the homological group-completion theorem also implies this: if $M$ is group-like then $\pi_0(M)$ already consists of units in $H_*(M)$, so it just says that $M \to \Omega BM$ is a homology equivalence. Each of these spaces has homotopy equivalent path components, so it is then enough to observe that the map of 0 components is a homology equivalence between simple spaces, so a weak homotopy equivalence.

However it is perverse to prove the "$M \simeq \Omega BM$" result this way.

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