[Math] “geometric” intuition underlying the notion of normal varieties

ac.commutative-algebraag.algebraic-geometrydg.differential-geometry

I first got concious of the notion of normal varieties around 3 years ago and despite the fact that by now I can manipulate with it a bit, this notion still puzzles me a lot.
One thing that strikes me is that the definition of normality is so entirely algebraic.

From my common sense understanding the notion of normal varieties restricts the class of spaces that we consider to more-less reasonable ones. It looks to me that this definition is analogous to the definition of pseudo-manifold. At least the obvious similarity is that in both cases the set of non-singular points is connected.

Normality pops up everywhere and its definition is very short. But it is hard for me to imagine that a differential topologist or differential geometer could come up with such a definition.
Why is the notion of normatilty is so omnipresent?
What is "geometric" meaning of normality?

Maybe a more concrete question would be like this. Suppose $X$ is an irreducible algebraic subvariety in $\mathbb C^n$ with singularities in co-dimension $2$. Can one somehow looking on singularities, their stratification and the way $X$ lies in $\mathbb C^n$ say if it is normal or not?

Added. Who was the person who invented this notion?

I would like to thank everybody for useful comments and links.

Best Answer

This is basically the same as roy smith's excellent comment, but I'd like to put a slightly different spin on it.

A normal variety is a variety that has no undue gluing of subvarieties or tangent spaces.

Let me explain what I mean by gluing. Given a variety $X$, a closed sub-scheme $Y \subseteq X$ and a finite (even surjective) map $Y \to Z$, you can glue $X$ and $Z$ along $Y$ (identifying points and tangent information). This is the pushout of the diagram $X \leftarrow Y \rightarrow Z$.

You might not always get a scheme (although you do in the affine case) but you always get an algebraic space. In the affine case, this just corresponds to the pullback in the category of rings.

Example 1: $X = \mathbb{A}^1$ glued to $Z = \bullet$ (one point) along $Y = \bullet, \bullet$ (two points) is a nodal curve.

Example 2: $X = \mathbb{A}^1$ glued to $Z = \bullet$ (one point) along $Y = \star = \text{Spec } k[x]/x^2$ a fuzzy point gives you a cuspidal curve.

Example 3: $X = \mathbb{A}^2$ glued to $Z = \mathbb{A}^1$ along one of the axes $Y = \mathbb{A}^1$ via the map $Y \to Z$ corresponding to $k[t^2] \subseteq k[t]$ gives you the pinch point / Whitney's umbrella = $\text{Spec } k[x^2, xy, y]$.


If I recall correctly, all non-normal varieties $W$ come about this way for some appropriate choice of normal $X$ (the normalization of $W$) and $Y$ and $Z$ (NOT UNIQUE). Roughly speaking, if you are given $W$ and want to construct $X, Y, Z$, do the following: Let $X$ be the normalization, let $Z$ be some sufficiently deep thickening of the non-normal locus of $X$ and let $Y$ be some appropriate pre-image scheme of $Z$ in $X$.

Edit: There is a proof available now HERE

Assuming this is true, you can see that all non-normal things are non-normal because they either have some points identified (as in 1 or 3) or some tangent space information killed / collapsed (as in example 2), or some combination of the two.