[Math] General hyperplane sections and projection from a point

ac.commutative-algebraag.algebraic-geometryelimination-theory

Let $k$ be an algebraically closed field, and consider some subscheme $X\subset \mathbb{P}_k^n$. Let $x$ be a closed point of $X$, and $H$ a general hyperplane containing $x$. There is a regular map $\phi:\mathbb{P}^n\setminus{\{x\}}\rightarrow \mathbb{P}^{n-1}$ gotten by projecting from the point $x$.

My question: Is $\overline{\phi(H\setminus x)}\cap\overline{\phi(X\setminus x)}=\overline{\phi((X\cap H)\setminus x)}$?

This can be rephrased in terms of commutative algebra: Let $A=k[x_1,\ldots,x_n]$, $B=A[x_0]$, $I$ be a homogeneous ideal of $B$, and $h$ a general linear form of $A$. The question above is equivalent to the following: Is $(I\cap A)+h=(I+h)\cap A$?

More generally, what if we replace $H$ and $h$ by a general hypersurface/general polynomial of degree $d$?

If $h$ or $H$ isn't general, equality doesn't hold, even for $d=1$. Consider for example $n=3$ and take $I=\langle x_0x_1,x_2^2+x_0x_3\rangle$, and consider $h=x_3-x_1$. Then $I\cap A=\langle x_1x_2^2 \rangle$, so $(I\cap A)+h=\langle x_1x_2^2,x_1-x_3\rangle$, but $(I+h)\cap A=\langle x_2^2,x_1-x_3\rangle$.

Best Answer

EDITED to match clarifications in the question and in Sándor's answer.

The question is equivalent to asking whether the tangent cone at $x$ of the hyperplane section coincides with the hyperplane section of the tangent cone:

Blow up $x$, and denote $\tilde{\mathbb{P}}^n$, $\tilde X$, $\tilde H$ the resulting variety and the proper transforms of $X$ and $H$. Now $\phi$ extends to $\tilde \phi$, defined on the whole $\tilde{\mathbb{P}}^n$, and for every subvariety $Z\subset \mathbb{P}^n$, $\overline{\phi(Z\setminus \{x\})}=\tilde\phi(\tilde Z)$. Thus, $\overline{\phi(X)} \cap \overline{\phi(H)}= \tilde\phi(\tilde X) \cap \tilde\phi(\tilde H)=\tilde\phi(\tilde X\cap \tilde H)$, because $\tilde H=\tilde \phi^{-1}(\tilde \phi(\tilde H))$ as in Sándor's computation. On the other hand, $\overline{\phi(X \cap H)}=\tilde \phi(\widetilde{X\cap H})$.

So, whenever $\tilde X\cap \tilde H=\widetilde{X\cap H}$, your statement holds. Now we can work componentwise: assume $X$ is irreducible. It is clear that $\widetilde{X\cap H}=\tilde X \cap \tilde H$ unless $\tilde X \cap \tilde H$ has a component contained in the exceptional divisor $E\cong \mathbb{P}^{n-1}$. Since $\tilde X$ meets the exceptional divisor properly, the only case when $\tilde X \cap \tilde H$ can have a component contained in the exceptional divisor arises if $\tilde H$ does not meet $\tilde X \cap E$ properly. But if $H$ is general, so is $\tilde H \cap E=L$, and then it does meet $\tilde X \cap E$ properly!

In your example with non-general $H$, $\tilde X \cap E$ is a point which gives trouble because your $\tilde H$ happens to contain it.

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