[Math] Does the fact that this vector space is not isomorphic to its double-dual require choice

axiom-of-choicelinear algebra

Let $V$ denote the vector space of sequences of real numbers that are eventually 0, and let $W$ denote the vector space of sequences of real numbers. Given $w \in W$ and $v \in V$, we can take their "dot product" $w \cdot v$, and for any give $w \in W$, this defines a linear functional $V \to \mathbb{R}$. In fact, under this association, we see that $W \cong V^{\ast}$. Assuming choice, $W$ has a basis and has uncountable dimension, whereas $V$ has countable dimension. So $\mathrm{dim} (V) < \mathrm{dim} (V^{\ast}) \leq \dim(V^{\ast \ast})$ so $V$ is not isomorphic to its double-dual. In particular, the canonical map $\widehat{\cdot} : V \to V^{\ast \ast}$ defined by $\widehat{x} (f) = f(x)$ is not an isomorphism.

Question 1: Can you explicitly write down an element of $V^{\ast \ast}$ that isn't of the form $\widehat{x}$?

Question 2: What's the situation if we don't assume choice? (i.e. might the canonical map be an isomorphism, might $W$ not even have a basis, might $V$ be isomorphic to its double-dual but not via the canonical map, etc?)


In light of Daniel's and Yemon's comments, and Konrad's related question here, I'd like to reorganize my question(s). So consider the following statements:

  1. The canonical map $\widehat{\cdot} : V \to V^{\ast \ast}$ is injective but not surjective.
  2. The canonical map is not an isomorphism.
  3. There is no isomorphism from $V$ to its double-dual.
  4. The double-dual is non-trivial.
  5. $V^{\ast}$ has a basis.

This is the question I'm really interested in, and which clarifies and makes more precise my original Question 1:

Revised Question 1: Are there models without choice where (1) holds? If so, can we find some $x \in V^{\ast \ast}$ witnessing non-surjectivity to describe a witness to non-surjectivity in choice models? Are there models of choice where (1) fails?

The following question is a more precise version of Question 2.

Revised Question 2: Under AC, all 5 statements above are true. There are $2^5 = 32$ ways to assign true-false values to the 5 sentences above that might hold in some model of ZF where choice fails. Not all 32 are legitimate possibilites, some of them are incompatible with ZF since, for instance, (1) implies (2), (5) implies (4), and the negation of (4) implies (1) through (3), etc. Which of the legitimate possibilites actually obtains in some model of ZF where choice fails?

This second question is rather broad, and breaks down into something on the order of 32 cases, so seeing an answer to any one of the legitimate cases would be cool.

Best Answer

Let me give an alternative proof of the result in Ron Maimon's answer, that the canonical map $V\to V^{**}$ can consistently, in the absence of the axiom of choice, be surjective. The only technical advantage of my proof is that it uses only the consistency of ZF plus countable choice plus "all sets (in Polish spaces) have the Baire property". That consistency was proved (by Shelah) relative to just ZF, whereas the consistency of "all sets are Lebesgue measurable" needs an inaccessible cardinal. I think my proof is also a bit simpler than the one using measure. (Also, I don't need to mention ultrafilters, which some people might consider an advantage.)

Let $f:V^*\to\mathbb R$ be a linear map, and let me identify $V^*$ with the space of infinite sequences of reals. Topologize $V^*$ with the product topology, where each factor $\mathbb R$ has the usual topology of the reals. That makes $V^*$ a Polish space, so I can use the assumption about Baire category. In particular, if I partition $\mathbb R$ into intervals of length 1, then the inverse images of these intervals under $f$ have the Baire property, and they can't all be meager, by the Baire category theorem. So at least one of them, call it $f^{-1}(I)$, differs by a meager set from a nonempty open set. Inside that nonempty open set, I can find a basic open set of the form `B=$\prod_iU_i$ where, for some $n$, the first $n$ of the factors $U_i$ are intervals of some length $\delta$ and the later factors $U_i$ are $\mathbb R$. For the first $n$ indices $i$, let $U'_i$ be the interval with the same midpoint as $U_i$ but only half the length, and let $B'$ be the product that is like $B$ except using the $U'_i$ instead of the $U_i$ for the first $n$ factors. Consider an arbitrary $z\in V^*$ whose first $n$ components are smaller than $\delta/2$ in absolute value. Then translation by $z$ in $V^*$ maps $B'$ homeomorphically to another subset of $B$. So the two sets $f^{-1}(I)\cap B'$ and $\{x\in B':z+x\in f^{-1}(I)\}$ are both comeager in $B'$ and therefore must intersect. Let $x$ be in their intersection. Both $f(x)$ and $f(z+x)$ are in the interval $I$ of length 1. Subtracting (and remembering that $f$ is linear), we get that $|f(z)|\leq 2$.

Summarizing, we have that $|f(z)|\leq 2$ for all $z\in V^*$ whose first $n$ components are smaller than $\delta/2$ in absolute value. By linearity, if the first $n$ components of $z$ are smaller than $\alpha\delta/2$ in absolute value, for some positive $\alpha$, then $|f(z)|\leq2\alpha$. In particular, if the first $n$ components of $z$ are zero, then so is $f(z)$. That is, the kernel of $f$ includes the subspace $N$ consisting of those $z\in V^*$ whose first $n$ components vanish. So $f$ factors through the quotient $V^*/N$, which is finite-dimensional (in fact, $n$-dimensional). Knowing what linear functionals on finite-dimensional spaces look like, we immediately conclude that $f$ is given by inner product with a member of $V$ (having non-zero components in at most the first $n$ positions).