Okay, after figuring out which paper you were trying to link to in the third link, I decided that it is better to just give an answer rather then a bunch of comments. So... there are several issues at large in your question. I hope I can address at least some of them.
The "big picture" problem you are implicitly getting at is the Hilbert problem of hydrodynamical limit of the Boltzmann equations: that intuitively the ensemble behaviour at the large, as model by a fluid as a vector field on a continuum, should be derivable from the individual behaviour of particles, as described by kinetic theory. Very loosely tied to this is the problem of global existence and regularity of Navier-Stokes.
If your goal is to solve the Navier-Stokes problem using the hydrodynamic limit, then you need to show that (a) there are globally unique classical solutions to the the Boltzmann equations and (b) that they converge in a suitably regular norm, in some rescaling limit, to a solution of Navier-Stokes. Neither step is anywhere close to being done.
As far as I know, there are no large data, globally unique, classical solutions to the Boltzmann equation. Period. If we drop some of the conditions, then yes: for small data (perturbation of Maxwellian), the recent work of Gressman and Strain (0912.0888) and Ukai et al (0912.1426) solve the problem for long-range interactions (so not all collision kernels are available). If you drop the criterion of global, there are quite a bit of old literature on local solutions, and if you drop the criterion of unique and classical, you have the DiPerna-Lions solutions (which also imposes an angular-cutoff condition that is not completely physical).
The work of Golse and Saint-Raymond that you linked to establishes the following: that the weak solution of DiPerna-Lions weakly converges to the well-known weak solutions of Leray for the Navier-Stokes problem. While this, in some sense, solve the problem of Hilbert, it is rather hopeless for a scheme trying to show global properties of Navier-Stokes: the class of Leray solutions are non-unique.
As I see it, to go down this route, you'd need to (i) prove an analogue of DiPerna-Lions, or to get around it completely differently, and arrive at global classical and unique solutions for Boltzmann. This is a difficult problem, but I was told that a lot of very good people are working on it. Then you'd need (ii) also to prove an analogue of Golse-Saint-Raymond in a stronger topology, or you can use Golse-Saint-Raymond to first obtain a weak-limit that is a Leray solution, and then show somehow that regularity is preserved under this limiting process. This second step is also rather formidable.
I hope this somewhat answers your question.
There is probably no universally accepted mathematical definition of turbulence. (By the way, is there a physical one?) Moreover, the prevailing definitions seem to be highly volatile and time-dependent themselves.
A few notable examples.
In the Ptolemaic Landau–Hopf theory turbulence is understood as a cascade of bifurcations from unstable equilibriums via periodic solutions (the Hopf bifurcation) to quasiperiodic solutions with arbitrarily large frequency basis.
According to Arnold and Khesin, in the 1960's most specialists in PDEs regarded the lack of global existence and uniqueness theorems for solutions of the 3D Navier–Stokes equation as the explanation of turbulence.
Kolmogorov suggested to study minimal attractors of the Navier-Stokes equations and formulated several conjectures as plausible explanations of turbulence. The weakest one says that the maximum of the dimensions of minimal attractors of the Navier–Stokes equations grows along with the Reynolds number Re.
In 1970 Ruelle and Takens formulated the conjecture that turbulence is the appearance
of global attractors with sensitive dependence of motion on the initial conditions in the phase space of the Navier–Stokes equations (link). In spite of the vast popularity of their paper, even the existence of such attractors is still unknown.
Edit 1. Concerning explicit solutions to the Navier-Stokes equations, I don't think any of them really exhibit turbulence features. The thing is that the nonlinear term $v\cdot \nabla v$ is equal to $0$ for most known classical explicit solutions. In other words, these solutions
actually solve the linear Stokes equation and don't "see" the nonlinearity of the full Navier-Stokes system. This is probably not what one would expect from a truly turbulent flow.
Edit 2. As for the quick reference, you may find helpful the short survey on turbulence theories by Ricardo Rosa. It appears as an article in the Encyclopedia of Mathematical Physics.
Best Answer
To complete Michael's answer, the only situation that is under control is that of the Cauchy problem: the spatial domain is ${\mathbb R}^d$ or ${\mathbb T}^d$ (case of periodic solutions). This means that there is no boundary condition.
If $d=2$, both systems are globally well-posed for $t>0$, with uniformly bounded (in $L^2$) solutions, and $u_\nu$ converges strongly to the solution of the Euler equation. Notice that it is not a trivial fact: the reasons why both Navier-Stokes and Euler Cauchy problems are globally well-posed have nothing in common; for Navier-Stokes, it comes from the Ladyzhenskaia inequality (say, $\|w\|_{L^4}^2\le c\|w\|_{L^2}\|\nabla w\|_{L^2}$), while for Euler, it is the transport of the vorticity.
If $d=3$, both Cauchy problems are locally-in-time well-posed for smooth enough initial data. One has a convergence as $\nu\rightarrow0+$ on some time interval $(0,\tau)$, but $\tau$ might be strictly smaller than both the time of existence of Euler and the $\lim\inf$ of the times of existence for Navier-Stokes.
To my knowledge, the initial-boundary value problem is a nightmare. The only result of convergence is in the case of analytic data (Caflisch & Sammartino, 1998). From time to time, a paper or a preprint appears with a "proof" of convergence, but so far, such papers have all be wrong.
By the way, your question is incorrectly stated, when you say boundary conditions are equal. The boundary condition for NS is $u=0$, whereas that for Euler is $u\cdot\vec n=0$, where $\vec n$ is the normal to the boundary. This discrepancy is the cause of the boundary layer. One may say that the difficulty lies in the fact that this boundary layer is characteristic. Non-characteristic singular limits are easier to handle.
Another remark is that some other boundary condition for NS are better understood. For instance, there is a convergenece result (Bardos) when $u=0$ is replaced by $$u\cdot\vec n=0,\qquad {\rm curl}u\cdot\vec n=0.$$