[Math] are these polynomials or rationals functions

co.combinatoricsinteger-sequencesnt.number-theorypolynomialsspecial functions

Let $x$ be a variable. Define the following family of sequences (reminiscent of Lucas polynomials) according to the rule: $P_0(x):=0, P_1(x):=1$ and for $n\geq2$ by
$$P_n(x)=xP_{n-1}(x)-P_{n-2}(x).$$
Notice that $P_n(2)=n$ for every $n\in\mathbb{Z}_{\geq0}$. Here are a few examples:
$$P_2=x, \qquad P_3=x^2-1, \qquad P_4=x^3-2x, \qquad P_5=x^4-3x^2+1.$$

QUESTION 1. Empirical evidence suggest that, for each fixed integers $n, k\geq1$,
$$Q_{n,k}(x):=\frac{P_1(x)^{2k-1}+P_2(x)^{2k-1}+\cdots+P_n(x)^{2k-1}}{P_1(x)+P_2(x)+\cdots+P_n(x)} \tag1$$
is a polynomial in $x$.

This is trivial for $k=1$. Is it true for other odd powers $2k-1$?

REMARKS.

(1) Specialized values $2k-1=3$ or $5$, etc are still interesting to me.

(2) Even the case of special valuations for $x\in\mathbb{Z}$ are appealing as well, which means (1) becomes a claim on integrality of sequences.

QUESTION 2. Encouraged by the success with QUESTION 1, how about this?
$$R_n(x)=\prod_{j=1}^n\frac{P_j(x)^{2k-1}+\cdots+P_n(x)^{2k-1}}{P_j(x)} \tag2$$
is a polynomial in $x$.

Best Answer

This is response to QUESTION 1.

As Fedor pointed out, we're dealing with the Chebyshev polynomials $P_n(2\cos t)=\sin nt/\sin t$. So we must show that if $$ \sum_{n=1}^N \sin nt = 0 , \quad\quad\quad\quad (1) $$ then also $\sum_{n=1}^N \sin^m nt = 0$ for any odd exponent $m\ge 1$.

We may take $0<t<\pi/2$. Also, the sum in (1) can of course be evaluated, and we find that (1) is equivalent to $$ \cos t/2 = \cos (N+1/2) t . \quad\quad\quad\quad (2) $$ I now claim that if (2) holds for $t$, then it also holds for any multiple of $t$. To see this, we just notice that (2) means that $s=t/2$ satisfies $(2N+1)s = 2\pi M\pm s$, for some $M\ge 1$ and a choice of sign (recall that $0<s<\pi/4$). In other words, (2) requires $s$ to be a rational multiple of $\pi$ with denominator $N$ or $N+1$, and clearly this property is preserved under taking integer multiples.

Now everything is clear: $\sin^m\alpha$ can be written as a linear combination of $\sin j\alpha$, with $j$ odd, and we have just seen that (1) implies that also $\sum_{n=1}^N \sin njt = 0$ for any odd $j$.