[Math] Are the two meanings of “undecidable” related

computability-theorylo.logicnt.number-theory

I am usually confused by questions of the type "could such and such a problem be undecidable", because as far as I know there are two distinct possible meanings of "undecidable". I regard the following as the standard definition:

Let $P(n)$ be a statement like "$n$ has at least three prime factors" or "the $n$th Turing machine halts" (we can also forget the statement and consider just its "truth value" function $P:\mathbb N\to\{0,1\}$). We say that the problem $P(n)$ is undecidable iff there is no Turing machine which answers "Is $P(n)$ true" correctly for all $n$ (equivalently, iff the function $P:\mathbb N\to\{0,1\}$ is non-recursive).

On the other hand, there is also the following alternative notion:

Let $P$ be a statement like

"$\forall x,y,z,n\in\mathbb Z,x^n+y^n+z^n=0\;\&\;n\geq 3\implies xyz=0$".

We say that the problem $P$ is undecidable iff it is independent of some particular chosen set of axioms (like PA or ZFC).

I would prefer to call this notion "independent of PA" or "independent of ZFC", since it makes explicit reference to a particular choice of axiomatic system.

Is there a good reason to use "undecidable" for both of these notions? Has this collision of terminology bothered anyone else? Is there a deeper connection between these notions which justifies using the same word for both?

Best Answer

To my way of thinking, the two notions of undecidability are closely related, and the associated undecidability phenomenon and independence phenomenon, which are both pervasive in mathematics, are deeply inter-twined.

The reason is that every Turing undecidable set is saturated with logical undecidability. If we describe a certain undecidable property of finite graphs, say, then there will be infinitely many specific finite graphs for which it will be logically undecidable, even with respect to very strong theories such as ZFC+large cardinals, whether that finite graph has the property or not. And similarly with any undecidable set $A$ and consistent c.e. theory $T$. This is because if almost all instances of "$n\in A$?'' were settled by $T$, then we would have a decision procedure for $A$, namely, on input $n$, search for a proof from $T$ whether $n\in A$ or not (and hard-code the finitely many exceptions).

So every Turing undecidable property is accompanied by a huge assortment of logically undecidable statements, assertions about whether particular objects have the property or not, which are independent of whichever fixed consistent background theory you care to adopt.

So although the two undecidability phenomenon are distinct, I find them to be deeply connected.

Update. Let me clarify exactly how much we need to trust the theory for this argument to work.

Theorem. If $A$ is any computably enumerable computably undecidable set and $T$ is any consistent theory extending PA, then there are numerous instances of $n\notin A$ such that $T$ does not prove this. Consequently, if $T$ is $\Sigma_1$-sound, then these membership statements are independent of $T$.

Proof. Notice first that if $n\in A$, then PA and hence also $T$ will prove this. Therefore by consistency, $T$ is reliable in any proof of $n\notin A$. Consider the algorithm that on input $n$ undertakes the following: during the day, it enumerates $A$ and searches for whether $n$ appears; at night, it searches for a proof in $T$ that $n\notin A$. If all instances of nonmembership were provable, this would be a computable decision procedure for $A$, contrary to assumption. So there must be many nonmembers of $A$ such that this fact is not provable in $T$. If also $T$ is $\Sigma_1$-sound, then it follows that the statement $n\in A$ is independent of $T$. $\Box$