If $H \in L_{q} (\mu, X^*)$ Then $H=0$ $\mu$-a.e – Functional Analysis

banach-spacesfa.functional-analysismeasure-theory

I'm reading Theorem 1 at page 98 of Vector Measures by Joseph Diestel, John Jerry Uhl. Here we use the Bochner integral.

Theorem 1 Let $(\Omega, \Sigma, \mu)$ be a $\sigma$-finite measure space, $1 \leq p<\infty$, and $(X, |\cdot|)$ be a Banach space. Then $L_{p}(\mu, X)^*=L_{q} (\mu, X^*)$ where $p^{-1}+q^{-1}=1$, if and only if $X^{*}$ has the Radon-Nikodým property with respect to $\mu$.

The isometric isomorphism given in the book is $\varphi: L_{p}(\mu, X)^* \to L_{q} (\mu, X^*)$ such that
$$
H (f) = \int_\Omega \langle \varphi(H), f \rangle \mathrm d \mu \quad \forall H \in L_{p}(\mu, X)^*, \forall f \in L_{p}(\mu, X).
$$

I feel that below result holds, i.e.,

Corollary: Let $N \in \Sigma$ and $K \in L_{p}(\mu, X)^*$ such that $K(f1_N)=0 \quad \forall f \in L_{p}(\mu, X)$. Then $\varphi (K)1_N = 0$, i.e., $\varphi(K)=0$ on $N$.

Could you provide me with some hints? Does it hold in case of other isometric isomorphisms?

Thank you so much for your elaboration.


My attempt: We need to show that
$$
\int_N |\varphi(K)|_{X^*} \mathrm d \mu =0.
$$

We have
$$
K(f1_N) = \int \langle \varphi(K)1_N, f \rangle \mathrm d \mu = 0 \quad \forall f \in L_{p}(\mu, X).
$$

It suffices to prove that if $T \in L_{q} (\mu, X^*)$ such that
$$
\int \langle T, f \rangle \mathrm d \mu = 0 \quad \forall f \in L_{p}(\mu, X),
$$

then $T=0$ $\mu$-a.e.


I posted this question on MSE, but have not received any answer so far. So I post it here.

Best Answer

It is always true that $L_q(\mu,X^*)\hookrightarrow L_p(\mu,X)^*$ isometrically (without the assumption that $X$ has the Radon-Nikodym property). We need the Radon-Nikodym property to guarantee that this isometric embedding is a surjection.

From this it follows that for any $T\in L_q(\mu,X^*)$, $$\|T\|=\sup\Bigl\{\Bigl|\int \langle T,f\rangle d\mu\Bigr| : f\in B_{L_p(\mu,X)}\Bigr\}.$$ If $\int \langle T,f\rangle d\mu=0$ for all $f\in L_p(\mu,X)$, then it follows that $\|T\|=0$, and $T$ is the zero vector. From this it follows that $T=0$ $\mu$ a.e.