Real Analysis – Does f(t) ? ??? (t-s)?¹/² [f(s) + |f(s)|?] ds Imply f=0?

inequalitiesreal-analysis

Let $\beta \in (0, 1)$. We assume $f : [0, 1] \to [0, \infty)$ is a measurable and bounded function such that
$$
f(t) \le \int_0^t (t-s)^{-\frac{1}{2}} [f(s) + |f(s)|^{\beta}] \, \mathrm d s,
\quad \forall t \in [0, 1].
$$

I would like to ask if $f=0$?

Thank you so much for your elaboration!

Best Answer

$$ f(t) = \varepsilon t^A$$ will be a counterexample if $\varepsilon>0$ is small enough and $A > 1$ is large enough (one basically needs $A \beta + 1/2 \leq A$ and $\varepsilon \leq \varepsilon^\beta \int_0^1 (1-s)^{-1/2} s^A\ ds$).

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