Yes/No Is the collection of all “open” discs is a basis for the euclidean topology on $\mathbb{R}^2?$

general-topology

yes/No Is the collection of all “open” discs is a basis for the euclidean topology on $\mathbb{R}^2?$

My attempt : No

i think closed disk will be basis for the euclidean topology on $\mathbb{R}^2$ take $B_1, B_2 \in$ closed Disc, Then $B_1 \cap B_2 \neq \emptyset $

But If $B_1, B_2 \in$ open Disc, Then $B_1 \cap B_2= \emptyset $

so here in open disc its contradicts the definition of basis $B_1 \cap B_2$ is a union member of $B$

Best Answer

As they told you in the comments, open discs form a basis for the euclidean topology in $\Bbb R^2$ by definition, since open sets in that topology are defined to be the union of open discs.

A basis $\mathcal B$ in a topological space $(X,\tau)$ is a collection $\mathcal B$ of open sets for the topology of $\tau$, $\mathcal B\subseteq\mathcal P(X)$, such that every element of the topology (every open set) can be expressed as a union of elements of the basis. Since this is the definition of basis, and the open sets of the euclidean topology of $\Bbb R^2$ are the union of open discs, it follows trivially that open discs form a basis.

There is an equivalent definition for basis, the local definition of basis: a basis is a collection $\mathcal B\subseteq\mathcal P(X)$ of open sets such that given any open set $U$ of the topology, and given any element $x\in U$, there is an element of the basis $B\in\mathcal B$ such that $x\in B\subseteq U$, this is, $B$ contains $x$, but it remains enclosed in $U$. As I said, the two definitions are equivalent. It would be a good exercise to prove this.

Now, it remains trivial that open discs form a basis in the euclidean topology of $\Bbb R^2$, since every open set $U$ was the union of open discs, so for any $x\in U$ there is an open disc from that union containing $x$ that's enclosed in $U$ (since all the union was $U$).

If closed discs formed a basis, they would be open sets, so their finite intersection woulb be open sets too. But you could take two closed discs in $\Bbb R^2$ touching the other one in exactly one point, for example the closed discs with radii 1 centered at $(0,0)$ and $(0,2)$; but then the intersection would be that point, so that point should be an open set, although there is no way you can express a point a union of open discs. Then we can't have the closed discs as a basis for the euclidean topology in $\Bbb R^2$.