Why using first fundamental form on regular surfaces and riemannian metric on smooth manifolds

differential-geometrynotationriemannian-geometrysurfaces

In the study of regular surfaces, it's common to call a notion intrinsic to a regular surface $S$ if it can be expressed only with the knowledge of its the first fundamental form $\textbf{I}$. In this definition, it's equivalent to replace the first fundamental form with the induced scalar product from $\mathbb{R}^3$ on all tangent spaces of the surface. Indeed, this is because we have
$$\langle v,w\rangle = \frac{1}{2}\big(\textbf{I}(v+w) – \textbf{I}(v) – \textbf{I}(w) \big)$$ for all $v,w \in T_p S$ and for all $p \in S$.

On the study of Riemannian manifolds which generalize the regular surface case, the role of the first fundamental form in the definition of intrinsic is replaced with the riemannian metric.

My question is the following : Why do we not use the first fundamental form on both cases ? Alternatively, why do we not use the riemannian metric on both cases ? Is it only a pedagogical choice from the author ?

Thank you.

Best Answer

The first fundamental form is identically the same as a Riemannian metric. Although your text seems to treat $\mathbf I$ as a quadratic form — taking an input of a single tangent vector, most of us define it as a bilinear form — that is, taking a pair of tangent vectors $v,w$ as input. We would write $\mathbf I(v,v)$ where you're writing $\mathbf I(v)$. At any rate, for a submanifold of $\Bbb R^n$, the induced Riemannian metric comes about just as you understand for surfaces in $\Bbb R^3$.