Why isn’t $\int \frac{-dx}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}$ equal to $\arccos(x)$

calculusintegration

The reason I'm asking this is that because $d/dx(\arccos(x))=-\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}$, why to textbooks opt to write $\int -\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-x^2}} dx=-\arcsin(x) $ instead?

Best Answer

They are both correct, since the two answers differ by a constant. This is because $$\arccos(x)+\arcsin(x)=\pi/2.$$

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