Why is $X \mapsto hom(\pi_*^{st}X, \mathbb{Q})$ the same as ordinary rational cohomology

algebraic-topologyhomological-algebrahomology-cohomologyhomotopy-theoryspectra

I am trying to understand the notion of Anderson duality from appendix B of this paper https://arxiv.org/abs/math/0211216 by Hopkins and Singer. But I somehow get stuck at the very first steps. I am a newcomer to this field, so any comments are welcomed!

For a spectrum $X$, we denote its $k$-th homotopy group by $\pi_kX$. Then the paper claims that the functor
$$X \mapsto hom(\pi_*^{st}X, \mathbb{Q})$$
is the ordinary cohomology theory which is represented by the Eilenberg-Maclane spectrum. I am quite confused about this statement, and the following is my attempt to understand it.

To my understanding, suppose we are given a cohomology theory $k$ for spectra and want to evaluate it on a space $Y$, we can just evaluate $k$ on the suspension spectrum of $Y$. So I believe the functor on spectra
$$ X \mapsto \pi_*^{st}X$$
can be viewed as a homology theory for topological spaces, since
$$ Y \mapsto \pi_*^{st}(\Sigma^n Y)=\rm colim_n \pi_{*+n}(\Sigma^n Y)$$
is the stable homotopy theory represented by the sphere spectrum. Then by applying the contravariant functor $hom=\rm Hom_{\mathbb{Z}}(-,\mathbb{Q})$, we can get a cohomology theory. However, so far the Eilenberg-Maclane spectrum still does not appear. I believe I must make some mistake somewhere, so I would be greatly appreciated it for any correction and comment.

Best Answer

The point is that rationally, stable homotopy groups are the same as ordinary homology. That is, $\pi_*^{st}(X)\otimes\mathbb{Q}$ is naturally isomorphic to $H_*(X;\mathbb{Q})$. (If you are not familiar with this fact, it is a basic computational theorem in stable homotopy theory. For instance, it follows from the Atiyah-Hirzebruch spectral sequence using the fact that $\pi_n^{st}(S^0)$ is torsion for all $n\neq 0$.) So, we have natural isomorphisms $$\operatorname{Hom}(\pi_*^{st}(X),\mathbb{Q})\cong \operatorname{Hom}(\pi_*^{st}(X)\otimes\mathbb{Q},\mathbb{Q})\cong \operatorname{Hom}(H_*(X;\mathbb{Q}),\mathbb{Q})\cong H^*(X;\mathbb{Q}).$$

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