Why is the trace equal to the sum of the eigenvalues

eigenvalues-eigenvectorsmatricestrace

Is there any straightforward intuition for why the trace equals the sum of the matrix eigenvalues?

I've looked through various mathematical proofs, as well as discussions in other threads such as Proof that the trace of a matrix is the sum of its eigenvalues

I've tried looking at matrices which are diagonalizable:
$$\text{tr}(A)=\text{tr}(PDP^{-1})=\text{tr}(P^{-1}PD)=\text{tr}(ID)=\text{tr}(D)$$
But this isn't intuitive to me because the cyclic trace property itself is not intuitive (I can understand the cyclic property mathematically and know various proofs of it, but I can't intuitively feel it). More importantly, even if I found the cyclic property intuitive, this still wouldn't answer why the trace is equal to the sum of the matrix eigenvalues in some intuitive way (e.g. it doesn't provide some geometric intuition).

Maybe there isn't a simple intuitive explanation for the equality. That's fine too. But I'd like to know if someone knows of one. When I say 'simple', I mean easy to understand for someone with let's say no more than a semester of first-year linear algebra.

Best Answer

For symmetric matrices $M$, there is the following geometric picture: the trace is proportional to the average squared norm of all vectors on the unit sphere, with respect to inner product $M$:

$$\operatorname{tr}(M) \propto \int_{\|\mathbf{v}\|=1} \mathbf{v}^T M \mathbf{v}\,dA,$$ where the proportionality constant depends on the dimension of $M$. You can prove this formula by noticing that when $M = e_i e_j^T$ for $i\neq j$, the integral is zero by symmetry arguments; for general $M$, since the formula is linear in $M$, you can break $M$ up into a sum of matrices each containing exactly one nonzero.

Now for any rotation $R$, $\operatorname{tr}(R^TMR) = \operatorname{tr}(M)$, since the conjugation by $R$ simply "spins the unit sphere." So you might as well take $R$ to be the matrix diagonalizing $M$.

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