Why is $\langle Px,y\rangle=\langle x,P^*y\rangle$

inner-productslinear algebraprojection-matricesself-adjoint-operators

This property is at the heart of a Wikipedia article on projections: this one.

I have not been able to make any headway in my understanding of the statement “A projection matrix $P$ is orthogonal if and only if it is Hermitian”. The article proves this by saying (I paraphrase): “well obviously $\langle Px,y\rangle=\langle x,P^*y\rangle\implies P=P^*$”.

Any answers or hints would be greatly appreciated. As well as an explanation of the property $\langle Px,y\rangle=\langle x,P^*y\rangle$, if there are alternative explanations/intuitions for why an orthogonal projection must be Hermitian/self-adjoint I’d appreciate that too.

Best Answer

If $P$ is orthogonal then $\langle Px, y \rangle = \langle Px, Py \rangle + \langle Px, y- Py \rangle = \langle Px, Py \rangle $. Switching $x,y$, we obtain $\langle x, Py \rangle = \langle Px, Py \rangle $. Thus, $\langle Px, y \rangle = \langle x, Py \rangle$ which implies $\langle Px, y \rangle = \langle P^*x, y \rangle$ and further implies $\forall x,y\, \langle (P-P^*)x, y \rangle =0$. Taking $y = (P-P^*)x$, we find $\| (P-P^*)x\| = 0$ for all $x$ which implies $P-P^* = 0$ and therefore $P = P^*$.

If $P^* = P$ then $$\langle Px, y- Py \rangle = \langle x, P^*y- P^*Py \rangle = \langle x, Py- P^2y \rangle = \langle x, Py- Py \rangle =0,$$ since $P^2 = P$.