Why does this expectation tend to 0 for random variables converging in probability

expected valuemeasure-theoryprobability theoryrandom variablesuniform-integrability

Suppose $(X_n)_n$ are identically distributed random variables with $\mathbb{E}(|X_1|^2)<\infty$. I have shown that $n^{-1/2}\max_{k\leq{n}}|X_k|\rightarrow0$ in probability as $n\rightarrow\infty$ and am now asked to show that $\mathbb{E}\left(n^{-1/2}\max_{k\leq{n}}|X_k|\right)\rightarrow{0}$ as $n\rightarrow\infty$ but am completely stuck.

I did the first part using the dominated convergence theorem and feel like I should now be using uniform integrability of the random variables $H_n=n^{-1/2}\max_{k\leq{n}}|X_k|$ to show that $H_n\rightarrow{0}$ in $L^1$ but I can see no way to prove they are uniformly integrable. It occurred to me to show that they are $L^p$-bounded for some $p>1$ but I can't even see that they are $L^1$ themselves. Any help would be really appreciated I've been stuck on this for ages.

Best Answer

Your $H_n$ are bounded in $L^2$. Note that $$\mathbb{E}[H_n^2] = \mathbb{E}[n^{-1} \max_{k \leq n} |X_k|^2] \leq \mathbb{E}[n^{-1} \sum_{k \leq n} |X_k|^2] = n^{-1} \sum_{k \leq n} \mathbb{E}[|X_1|^2] = \mathbb{E}[|X_1|^2] < \infty.$$ Since this bound is independent of $n$ we are done.