Why does setting the derivative of a likelihood function equal to 0 maximize the likelihood function

Question

I'm learning from a statistics tutorial which defines a likelihood function as

\begin{align}
L(1,3,2,2; \theta)=27 \cdot \theta^{8} (1-\theta)^{4} \tag{1}
\end{align}

and then the tutorial sets the derivative of (1) to zero to find the value of $\theta$ that maximizes the likelihood function.

I understand where this formula comes from.

\begin{align}
\frac{\text d L(1,3,2,2; \theta)}{\text d\theta}= 27 \big[8\theta^{7} (1-\theta)^{4}-4\theta^{8} (1-\theta)^{3} \big] \tag{2}
\end{align}

I don't understand how to determine if setting (2) to 0 produces a maximum or minimum.

Per another tutorial, we could use the second derivative of the function to determine if it is a maximum or minimum.

Here is the second derivative of the likelihood function (1)

$4\left(\theta-1\right)^2\theta^6\left(33\theta^2-44\theta+14\right) \tag{3}$

Setting (2) to zero and simplifying it gives

$2-3\theta = 0 \tag{4}$

How do I use (3) to determine if it is a maximum or minimum?

Should I set (3) to zero and simplify it the same way to get (4)?

Any other method is also welcomed.

Answer 1

To quote from Wikipedia:

One way to state Fermat's theorem is that, if a function has a local extremum at some point and is differentiable there, then the function's derivative at that point must be zero. In precise mathematical language:

Let $$f\colon (a,b) \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$$be a function and suppose that $x_0 \in (a,b)$ is a point where f has a local extremum. If $f$ is differentiable at $x_0$ then$$f'(x_0) = 0$$

and

After establishing the critical points of a function, the second-derivative test uses the value of the second derivative at those points to determine whether such points are a local maximum or a local minimum. If the function $f$ is twice-differentiable at a critical point $x$ (i.e. a point where $f'(x) = 0)$ then:

• If $f''(x) < 0$, then $f$ has a local maximum at $x$.
• If $f''(x) > 0$, then $f$ has a local minimum at $x$.
• If $f''(x) = 0$, the test is inconclusive.