Why does an odd perfect number seemingly “violate” basic inequality rules

divisor-suminequalitynumber theoryperfect numbersupper-lower-bounds

Let $p^k m^2$ be an odd perfect number (OPN) with special prime $p$ satisfying $p \equiv k \equiv 1 \pmod 4$ and $\gcd(p,m)=1$.

My question is as is in the title:

Why does an OPN seemingly "violate" basic inequality rules?

Denote the sum of divisors of the positive integer $x$ by $\sigma(x)$, the deficiency of $x$ by $D(x)=2x-\sigma(x)$, and the abundancy index of $x$ by $I(x)=\sigma(x)/x$.

Note that it is trivial to prove that
$$\frac{p+1}{p} \leq I(p^k) < \frac{p}{p-1}$$
from which we obtain
$$\frac{2(p-1)}{p} < I(m^2) = \frac{2}{I(p^k)} \leq \frac{2p}{p+1}.$$
This implies that
$$\frac{2}{p+1} \leq \frac{D(m^2)}{m^2} < \frac{2}{p}.$$
Taking reciprocals, multiplying by $2$, and subtracting $1$, we get
$$p-1 < \frac{\sigma(m^2)}{D(m^2)} \leq p,$$
where we note that $(2/p) < p-1$.

Notice then how the OPN seems to "violate" the basic inequality rule

$$(a \leq b) \land (c \leq d) \implies (ac \leq bd).$$

Note that
$$I(m^2) = \frac{D(m^2)}{m^2}\cdot\frac{\sigma(m^2)}{D(m^2)},$$
and that the premise is false while the conclusion is true in the above implication.

Best Answer

On OP's request, I am converting my comment into an answer.

The implication says only that if $a\le b$ and $c\le d$, then $ac\le bd$ (assuming that $a,c$ are non-negative).

It does not say that $ac\le bd$ only if $a\le b$ and $c\le d$.

(It is false that if $ac\le bd$, then $a\le b$ and $c\le d$.

For $(a,b,c,d)=(3,2,2,4)$, for example, we have $ac\le bd$ and $a\gt b$.)