Why a set is weakly sequentially precompact set

functional-analysisgeneral-topologyhilbert-spacesweak-convergence

I'm struggling to understand the following assertion:

Since $\lim_{t\rightarrow \infty}\|x(t)-y_0\|$ exists, $\{x(t):t\geq 0\}$ is weakly sequentially precompact.

Please give thorough explanations because my knowledge of weak topology is very weak (pun intended 😉 )

If something is unclear, please refer to this paper: Asymptotic convergence of nonlinear contraction semigroups, (theorem 1 — at the end of page 17 and beginning of page 18).

Best Answer

Since $x$ is continuous the image of $[0,N]$ is is norm bounded for each positive integer $N$. Since $\lim_{t \to \infty} \|x(t)-y_0\|$ exists it follows that $\{x(t): t \geq 0\}$ lies in a norm bounded subset of $H$. In a separable Hilbert space any norm bounded set is weakly sequentially precompact.

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