When can the equality be satisfied

elementary-number-theoryirrational-numbersnumber theory

Take the equality given by $\alpha n = \beta m$ where $\alpha, \beta$ are irrational and $n, m$ are rational. For any irrational $\alpha$ and $\beta$, must there exist a rational $n$ and $m$ that satisfy the equality?

If not, assume $\alpha n = \beta m$ holds. Then, upon perturbing $\alpha$ by some $\epsilon$, how large must $\epsilon$ be such that there exists a rational $l, k$ that satisfy the equality $(\alpha +\epsilon) l = \beta k$?

Best Answer

It is somewhat misleading to express this using four numbers. If $\beta \neq 0$ it is really about the single real number $\rho = \frac {\alpha}{\beta}$ and how closely $\rho$ can be approximated by a rational number $r$ ie the size of $|\rho-r|$.

This is answered by the fact that the rational numbers are dense in the reals, so you can approximate as closely as you desire. The rationals of denominator $N$ partition the reals into intervals of length $\frac 1N$ and $\rho$ will lie in one of those intervals and will be within $\frac 1{2N}$ of one of the endpoints.

The existence of efficient rational approximations has been explored - ones with small denominator relative to the error. Look up Diophantine Approximation if you are interested.

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