When a seminormed space is complete

functional-analysisgeneral-topologyhilbert-spaces

Let $(F, \langle \cdot\;,\;\cdot\rangle)$ be a complex Hilbert space. Let $M$ a positive semidefine operator on $F$. Consider the following positive semidefinite sesquilinear form:
\begin{eqnarray*}
\langle\cdot\;,\;\cdot\rangle_{M}
:&F\times F&\longrightarrow \mathbb{C}\\
&(x,y)&\longmapsto\langle x\;,\;y\rangle_{M} =\langle Mx\;,\;y\rangle.
\end{eqnarray*}

The seminorm induced by $\langle\cdot\;,\;\cdot\rangle_{M}$ is given by
$$\|x\|_M=\langle Mx\;,\;x\rangle^{1/2}.$$

Clearly $(F,\|\cdot\|_M)$ is a normed space iff $M$ is injective.

If $M$ is not injective, can we say that $(F,\|\cdot\|_M)$ is complete iff the range of $M$ is closed? or we must assume that $M$ is injective because I think that in the definition of a complete space we need that it is separated in order to obtain uniqueness of the limit.

The idea is to take $(x_n)\subset F$ such that $\|x_n-x_m\|_{M}\to0$ as $n,m\to\infty$ and to show $(x_n)$ converges with respect $\|\cdot\|_M$. My problem is that when $M$ is not injective then $\|\cdot\|_M$ is just a seminorm and we don't have the uniqueness of the limit.

Best Answer

The definition of (sequentially) complete is "every Cauchy sequence has a limit", not "every Cauchy sequence has a unique limit". So the fact that the space is non-separated is irrelevant to its completeness.

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