What’s the intuition on normal subgroups/ideals ‘factoring’ out properties in quotient groups/rings

abstract-algebra

I think 'factoring' out here may be a bit of a misnomer; I mean the qualitative 'removal' of certain unwanted properties. For example, consider the Abelian group $G$, and the subgroup $H$ that is all elements of finite order in $G$. Then $G/H$ has no element (other than identity) of finite order. In some sense selecting this particular subgroup $H$, which consisted of elements of finite order, leads to a quotient group of elements having infinite order.

That was the example given in my book, and I followed it fine and it makes sense in this particular example. There were a couple of others which also made sense, in each particular case. However I cannot quite grasp the intuition behind this in general. I don't see why a normal subgroup or ideal having a particular property tends to mean the quotient group/ring will not.

My book implies this is of great practical importance for the construction of homomorphic images with properties we want, so I am trying to figure out why this is the case? I can see in individual cases, when given proof, why the results hold. But I have zero intuition for why any general property can effectively be eliminated by carefully choosing the subgroup or ideal to have said property?

Best Answer

When $G$ is nonabelian, its elements of finite order are not a subgroup in general (if $g$ and $h$ have finite order, $gh$ could have infinite order). When $G$ is abelian and $H$ is its subgroup of elements of finite order, the fact that $G/H$ has no nontrivial elements of finite order requires an argument. To appreciate this, if a group $G$ has a center $Z$, which is always a normal subgroup, the quotient group $G/Z$ might have a nontrivial center. Passing from $G$ to $G/Z$ does not have to "kill the center" in $G/Z$ because the center of $G/Z$ is represented by elements of $G$ that commute with everything in $G$ "up to multiplication by elements of $Z$", so when $Z$ is killed off, you can be left with nontrivial elements of $G/Z$ that now commute with everything in $G/Z$.

Example: $G = D_4 = \langle r,s\rangle$ where $r^4 = 1$, $s^2 = 1$, and $srs^{-1} = r^{-1}$. The center of $G$ is $Z = \{1,r^2\}$ and $G/Z$ is a group of order 4, which is abelian (all groups of order 4 are abelian) and therefore $G/Z$ doesn't have a trivial center: the whole quotient group $G/Z$ is its center. What is going on here is that when you pass from $G$ to $G/Z$, two elements $g$ and $h$ in $G$ that may not commute in $G$ could commute in $G/Z$ because in $G$ they only commute "up to an element in the center": $hg = zgh$ for some nontrivial $z$ in $Z$. Then $g$ and $h$ do not commute in $G$ but their images in $G/Z$ do commute in $G/Z$.

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