What does “measurable” mean intuitively

measure-theory

So if we have an outer measure $\mu$ on a set $\Omega$, we defined:

A subset A $\subseteq$ $\Omega$ is called $\mu$-measurable, if for all B $\subseteq$ $\Omega$:

$\mu$(B) = $\mu$(B $\cap$ A) + $\mu$(B \ A).

And i understand the definition, but i always thought we can only measure measurable sets, i.e. $\mu$ is only defined for measurable sets, but it's defined for all subsets of $\Omega$. So why do we define it this way or what's the intuition behind it?

If we measure a non-measurable set, does that mean the value will be "wrong" in a way? Or do I take the word "measurable" too literally?

Best Answer

If $\mu^*$ denotes an outer measure on a set $\Omega$ then $A\subseteq\Omega$ is by definition $\mu^*$-measurable if:$$\mu^*(B)=\mu^*(B\cap A)+\mu^*(B\cap A^{\complement})\text{ for all }B\subseteq\Omega$$

Be aware that an outer measure is defined on the powerset of $\Omega$ so that $\mu^*(B)$ is defined for every $B\subseteq\Omega$. In general an outer measure is not the same thing as a measure.

The sets that are indeed $\mu^*$-measurable constitute a $\sigma$-algebra and the restriction of $\mu^*$ on this $\sigma$-algebra appears to be a (complete) measure.