Using “Maxwell’s curl equations” to get $H_y = \dfrac{j}{\omega \mu} \dfrac{\partial{E_x}}{\partial{z}} = \dfrac{1}{\eta}(E^+ e^{-jkz} – E^- e^{jkz})$

curlelectromagnetismmultivariable-calculusphysicsvector analysis

I am currently studying the textbook Microwave Engineering, fourth edition, by David Pozar. Chapter 1.4 THE WAVE EQUATION AND BASIC PLANE WAVE SOLUTIONS says the following:

The Helmholtz Equation

In a source-free, linear, isotropic, homogeneous region, Maxwell's curl equations in phasor form are
$$\nabla \times \bar{E} = -j \omega \mu \bar{H} \tag{1.41a}$$
$$\nabla \times \bar{H} = j \omega \epsilon \bar{E}, \tag{1.41b}$$
and constitute two equations for the unknowns, $\bar{E}$ and $\bar{H}$. As such, they can be solved for either $\bar{E}$ or $\bar{H}$. Taking the curl of (1.41a) and using (1.41b) gives
$$\nabla \times \nabla \times \bar{E} = – j\omega \mu \nabla \times \bar{H} = \omega^2 \mu \epsilon \bar{E},$$
which is an equation for $\bar{E}$. This result can be simplified through the use of vector identity (B.14), $\nabla \times \nabla \times \bar{A} = \nabla (\nabla \cdot \bar{A}) – \nabla^2 \bar{A}$, which is valid for the rectangular components of an arbitrary vector $\bar{A}$. Then,
$$\nabla^2 \bar{E} + \omega^2 \mu \epsilon \bar{E} = 0, \tag{1.42}$$
because $\nabla \cdot \bar{E} = 0$ in a source-free region. Equation (1.42) is the wave equation, or Helmholtz equation, for $\bar{E}$. An identical equation for $\bar{H}$ can be derived in the same manner:
$$\nabla^2 \bar{H} + \omega^2 \mu \epsilon \bar{H} = 0. \tag{1.43}$$
A constant $k = \omega \sqrt{\mu \epsilon}$ is defined and called the propagation constant (also known as the phase constant, or wave number), of the medium; its units are $1/m$.

Plane Waves in a Lossless Medium

In a lossless medium, $\epsilon$ and $\mu$ are real numbers, and so $k$ is real. A basic plane wave solution to the above wave equation can be found by considering an electric field with only an $\hat{x}$ component and uniform (no variation) in the $x$ and $y$ directions. Then, $\partial/\partial{x} = \partial/\partial{y} = 0$, and the Helmholtz equation of (1.42) reduces to
$$\dfrac{\partial^2{E_x}}{\partial{z}^2} + k^2 E_x = 0. \tag{1.44}$$
The two independent solutions to this equation are easily seen, by substitution, to be of the form
$$E_x(z) = E^+e^{-jkz} + E^-e^{jkz}, \tag{1.45}$$
where $E^+$ and $E^-$ are arbitrary amplitude constants.
The above solution is for the time harmonic case at frequency $\omega$. In the time domain, this result is written as
$$\mathcal{E}_x(z, t) = E^+ \cos(\omega t – kz) + E^- \cos(\omega t + kz), \tag{1.46}$$
where we have assumed that $E^+$ and $E^-$ are real constants.

A complete specification of the plane wave electromagnetic field should include the magnetic field. In general, whenever $\bar{E}$ or $\bar{H}$ is known, the other field vector can be readily found by using one of Maxwell's curl equations. Thus, applying (1.41a) to the electric field of (1.45) gives $H_x = H_z = 0$, and
$$H_y = \dfrac{j}{\omega \mu} \dfrac{\partial{E_x}}{\partial{z}} = \dfrac{1}{\eta}(E^+ e^{-jkz} – E^- e^{jkz}), \tag{1.49}$$
where $\eta = \omega \mu / k = \sqrt{\mu/\epsilon}$ is known as the intrinsic impedance of the medium.

I'm confused by this part:

In general, whenever $\bar{E}$ or $\bar{H}$ is known, the other field vector can be readily found by using one of Maxwell's curl equations. Thus, applying (1.41a) to the electric field of (1.45) gives $H_x = H_z = 0$, and
$$H_y = \dfrac{j}{\omega \mu} \dfrac{\partial{E_x}}{\partial{z}} = \dfrac{1}{\eta}(E^+ e^{-jkz} – E^- e^{jkz}), \tag{1.49}$$
where $\eta = \omega \mu / k = \sqrt{\mu/\epsilon}$ is known as the intrinsic impedance of the medium.

It isn't totally clear to me how (1.41a) is "applied" to (1.45) to get $H_x = H_z = 0$ and $H_y = \dfrac{j}{\omega \mu} \dfrac{\partial{E_x}}{\partial{z}} = \dfrac{1}{\eta}(E^+ e^{-jkz} – E^- e^{jkz})$, but it seems to me that they might be referring to taking the curl of (1.45). My understanding is that the curl is defined as follows:

$$\nabla \times \mathbf{F} = \begin{vmatrix} \hat{\mathbf{i}} & \hat{\mathbf{j}} & \hat{\mathbf{k}} \\ \dfrac{\partial}{\partial{x}} & \dfrac{\partial}{\partial{y}} & \dfrac{\partial}{\partial{z}} \\ F_x & F_y & F_z \end{vmatrix} = \hat{\mathbf{i}} \left( \dfrac{\partial{F_z}}{\partial{y}} – \dfrac{\partial{F_y}}{\partial{z}} \right) – \hat{\mathbf{j}} \left( \dfrac{\partial{F_z}}{\partial{x}} – \dfrac{\partial{F_x}}{\partial{z}} \right) + \hat{\mathbf{k}} \left( \dfrac{\partial{F_y}}{\partial{x}} – \dfrac{\partial{F_x}}{\partial{y}} \right)$$

So it seems to me that we then have

$$\begin{align} \nabla \times E_x(z) &= \nabla \times E^+e^{-jkz} + \nabla \times E^-e^{jkz} \\ &= E^+ (\nabla \times e^{-jkz}) + E^- (\nabla \times e^{jkz}) \ \ \ \text{(since $E^+$ and $E^-$ are constants.)} \end{align}$$

But $e^{-jkz}$ and $e^{jkz}$ aren't fields either, so how does this work? And since we're taking the curl of $E_x$ instead of $E$, how does that work? And, finally, how do we get $H_x = H_z = 0$ and $H_y = \dfrac{j}{\omega \mu} \dfrac{\partial{E_x}}{\partial{z}} = \dfrac{1}{\eta}(E^+ e^{-jkz} – E^- e^{jkz})$?


EDIT

If we apply the curl to (1.45), then we get

$$\nabla \times E_x = \hat{\mathbf{j}} \dfrac{\partial{E_x}}{\partial{z}} = (-jk E^+ e^{-jkz} + jk E^- e^{jkz}) \hat{\mathbf{j}} = -jk (E^+ e^{-jkz} – E^- e^{jkz})\hat{\mathbf{j}},$$

so it isn't clear to me how the authors got this.

Best Answer

We know that the only component of $\mathbf{E}$ is along the $\mathbf{e_{x}}$

Therefore $$ \nabla \times \mathbf{E} = \partial_zE_x \mathbf{e_{y}} - \partial_yE_x \mathbf{e_{z}} = \partial_zE_x \mathbf{e_{y}} $$ We also have $E_x = f(z)$ Thus the only component for $\mathbf{H}$ is along the $\mathbf{e_{y}}$ or $H_y$

We have $$ \nabla \times \mathbf{E} = -j\omega \mu \mathbf{H} $$ Which given $$ \mathbf{E} = E_x(z)\mathbf{e_{x}} $$ we have $$ \frac{\partial E_x}{\partial z}\mathbf{e_{y}} = - j \omega \mu H_y\mathbf{e_{y}} $$

We have $$ H_y = \frac{-1}{j\omega \mu}\frac{\partial E_x}{\partial z} = \frac{j}{\omega \mu}\frac{\partial E_x}{\partial z} $$ If we apply $$ E_x = E^{+}\mathrm{e}^{-jkz} + E^{-}\mathrm{e}^{jkz}\\ \partial_z E_x = -jk E^{+}\mathrm{e}^{-jkz} + jkE^{-}\mathrm{e}^{jkz} = - jk \left[E^{+}\mathrm{e}^{-jkz} - E^{-}\mathrm{e}^{jkz}\right] $$ we then have $$ H_y =- \frac{j}{\omega \mu}\cdot jk \left[E^{+}\mathrm{e}^{-jkz} - E^{-}\mathrm{e}^{jkz}\right]\\ H_y =\frac{k}{\omega \mu} \left[E^{+}\mathrm{e}^{-jkz} - E^{-}\mathrm{e}^{jkz}\right]\\ H_y =\frac{1}{\eta} \left[E^{+}\mathrm{e}^{-jkz} - E^{-}\mathrm{e}^{jkz}\right] $$

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