In this question, we define locally compact to be Hausdorff and every point has a compact neighbourhood. Similarly, we define compact to be Hausdorff and every open cover has a finite subcover.
Then we have the following universal property:
Let $X$ be a locally compact space, and let $i \colon X \hookrightarrow Y$ be a one-point-compactification, i.e. $i$ is a continuous embedding and $Y = X \cup \{\infty\}$ is compact. Given any continuous map $f \colon X \to Z$ into a compact space $Z$ and a special point $z_0 \in Z$ with the property that $f^{-1}(K) \subseteq X$ is compact for every compact $K \subseteq Z$ with $z_0 \notin K$, there exists a unique continuous lift $\bar{f} \colon Y \to Z$ of $f$.
I know that extending $f$ through $\bar{f}(\infty) = z_0$ is such a lift, I fail to show uniqueness, i.e. what happens if $\bar{f}(\infty) \ne z_0$.
Some facts I know:
- Finite subsets of Hausdorff spaces are closed.
- Closed subsets of compact spaces are compact.
- Compact subsets of Hausdorff spaces are closed.
- Continuous maps between Hausdorff spaces map compact sets to compact sets.
Best Answer
As stated, this is not correct. It also makes stronger assumptions than it needs to.
Your statement is not correct because it allows for $X$ to be compact. If $X$ is compact, then $\omega$ is an isolated point of $Y$ and $F(\omega)$ can be literally anything; uniqueness is lost.
I also allow $Z$ to be non-compact. If $Z$ is compact then the closed sets are precisely the compact sets, so, my statement boils down to your statement. Moreover, since your $Y$ is Hausdorff it has to be homeomorphic to my $Y$, so there are no issues there.
The proof is simple. Since $Z$ is Hausdorff and $\iota(X)$ is dense in $Y$, if $F,F':Y\to Z$ are both extensions of $f$ then their equaliser is closed and contains $\iota(X)$ so it must be the whole space; $F(\omega)=F'(\omega)$ is forced. It reamains to show that $\omega\mapsto z_0$ makes $F$ continuous at the point $\omega$.
That is true if and only if for every open $V\ni z_0$ in $Z$, $F^{-1}(V)=\{\omega\}\cup f^{-1}(V)$ is open in $Y$. That's true if and only if $f^{-1}(V)$ has compact complement in $X$, which is true if and only if $f^{-1}(K)$ is compact where $K:=Z\setminus V$ is a closed set not containing $z_0$. So, it follows more or less by hypothesis.