Trouble understanding proof: prime subfield is isomorphic to either $\mathbb {Q}$ or $\mathbb{Z}_p$

abstract-algebraring-theory

The prime subfield of a field $K$ is isomorphic to either $\mathbb {Q}$ or $\mathbb{Z}_p$. My professor's very minute proof goes as follows:

  • Let $f : (\mathbb Z, +) \to (K, +)$ a group homomorphism such that $f(1) = 1_K$. It's simple to verify that $f(ab) = f(a)f(b)$

  • The kernel of $f$ can be either $\{0\}$ or not $\{0\}$.

  • If it's not zero, then it's exactly $p\mathbb Z$ for some $p$, therefore $Im(f) \cong \mathbb Z/p\mathbb Z$

  • If it's zero, $f$ is injective, therefore we can define $\phi : \mathbb Q \to K$ such that $\phi(a/b) = f(a)/f(b)$, which is an homomorphism, therefore $\phi(\mathbb Q)$
    is a subfield of $K$ that is isomorphic to $\mathbb Q$.

What I did & did not understand:

  • I did easily verify the first point
  • $f$ is a ring homomorphism (not a field homomorphism), so it can be both injective and not injective, so the second point is ok
  • I did prove that if the kernel is not $\{0\}$ then there exists a prime such that $\ker f = p\mathbb Z$. One of the things I need clarification with is the $Im(f) \cong Z_p$ step. I understand this is using the homomorphism theorem to show $Im(f) \cong \mathbb Z/\ker f$. Why can the professor use it? It $f$ surjective?
  • Finally, I did not understand the last point.

"Beyond finally", and probably most importantly: What does this have to do with prime subfields? I can't really see the connection right now..

I've looked through other related questions, yet they did not solve my specific issue, only suggest different proofs.

Best Answer

Thanks to the people in the comments, who made me realize the following:

  • The second point is quite straight-forward: $f$ is (by definition) surjective onto its image, so the homomorphism theorem can be applied.

  • $f$ being injective allows $\phi$ to be a field homomorphism, and since, as before, $\phi$ is surjective onto its image, as well as being injective (because it is a field homomorphism), $\phi(\mathbb Q)$ and $\mathbb Q$ are isomorphic

  • What this has to do with prime subfields is simple: $\mathbb Z_p$ and $\mathbb Q$ are prime fields (i.e. have no non-trivial subfields), therefore if there exists a subfield of $K$ isomorphic to one of these, it has to be the "smallest" subfield of $K$ (the prime subfield).

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