Confused as to how to show the number 6's uniqueness. This theorem/problem comes from the projects section of "Reading, writing, and proving" from Springer.
Definition 1. The sum of divisors is the function $$\sigma (n) = \sum_{d\,|\,n} d,$$ where $d$ runs over the positive divisors of $n$ including 1 but not $n$ itself.
Definition 2.
The product of divisors is the function $$p(n) =\prod_{d\,|\,n} d,$$ where $d$ runs over the positive divisors of $n$ including 1 but not $n$ itself.
This is my progress, ends very quickly:
So the logical form of the problem is $\exists!x \left( \sigma(x) = x \wedge p(x) = x \right)$, which can be reexpressed as either $\exists x((\sigma(x) = x \wedge p(x) = x) \wedge \forall y (\sigma(y) = y \wedge p(y) = y)\rightarrow y=x)$ or $ \exists (\sigma(x) = x \wedge p(x) = x) \wedge \forall y \forall z ((\sigma(y) = y \wedge p(y) = y) \wedge (\sigma(z) = z \wedge p(z) = z) \rightarrow y=z)$. We use existential instantiation and choose x to be 6. So, choosing the first method — this choice seemed simpler to me — $(\sigma(6)= 6 \wedge p(6) = 6) \wedge \forall y ( \sigma(y)=y\wedge p(n) = n) \rightarrow y=6$. How do we go on about proving 6's uniqueness; how do we get that y=6?
Theorem. There is only one positive integer that is both the product and sum of all its proper positive divisors, and that number is $6$.
Proof.
Existence: Suppose $n =6$. Then $\sigma(6) = 1 + 2 + 3 =6 $ and $p(6)= 1 \cdot 2 \cdot 3 = 6$, so 6 is both the product and sum of all its proper positive divisors.
Uniqueness: [I have no idea.] $\square$
Best Answer
Let $n$ be a positive integer that satisfies the requirement. It can be readily checked that $n>1$ and $n$ is not a prime power.
Therefore, $n$ has at least two distinct prime factors. Let $p$ and $q$ denote two prime distinct natural numbers that divide $n$. Obviously, $pq\mid n$, whence $$n\geq pq\,.$$
Then, $\dfrac{n}{p}$, $\dfrac{n}{q}$, and $\dfrac{n}{pq}$ are proper divisors of $n$. Consequently, as $n$ is the product of its (positive) proper divisors, we get $$n\geq \left(\dfrac{n}{p}\right)\cdot\left(\dfrac{n}{q}\right)\cdot\left(\dfrac{n}{pq}\right)=\frac{n^3}{p^2q^2}\,.$$ Therefore, $n^2\leq p^2q^2$, or $n\leq pq$. However, $n\geq pq$. We then conclude that $n=pq$.
Thus, $1$, $p$, and $q$ are the only positive proper divisors of $n$. Ergo, from the requirement, $$1\cdot p\cdot q=n=1+p+q\,.$$ Therefore, $pq=p+q+1$, or $$(p-1)(q-1)=2\,.$$ You can finish this, I suppose.
Related Questions.
(a) If $n$ is a positive integer such that $n$ equals the product of all positive proper divisors of $n$, then show that $n=p^3$ for some prime natural number $p$, or $n=pq$ for some distinct prime natural numbers $p$ and $q$.
(b) If $n$ is a positive integer such that the product of all positive proper divisors of $n$ equals the sum of all positive proper divisors of $n$ (without requiring that the product or the sum is equal to $n$ itself), then prove that $n=6$.
(c) If $n$ is a positive integer such that the product of all positive divisors of $n$ equals the sum of all positive divisors of $n$, then prove that $n=1$.