The test for divergence shows this harmonic series is convergent

convergence-divergencesequences-and-series

$$\frac 13 + \frac16 + \frac 19 + \frac {1}{12}+\frac{1}{15}+…$$

Is of the form $ \frac {1}{3}\sum^{\infty}_{n=1} (\frac{1}{n}) $ which makes it a p-series and also the harmonic series in particular, so the series is divergent.

But my classmate noticed that if we try to use the test for divergence:

when: $ \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}a_n \not= 0 $ the series is divergent

$$\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \frac {1}{3n}=0$$

The series should be convergent?

Edit: I initially put in the integral test instead of the divergence test by mistake

Best Answer

You're misunderstanding what the divergence test tells you. Is says that if $\lim_{n\to\infty}a_n\neq0$, then $\sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n$ diverges. This is not the same as it's converse, i.e. that if the limit is zero then the series converges. There are lots of series where the terms go to zero but which do not converge, and the harmonic series is a prime example of this. The divergence test is simply there to help you rule out series from converging. Take for example the series

$$\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1+n}{n}.$$

Since

$$\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{1+n}{n}=\lim_{n\to\infty}\left(\frac{1}{n}+1\right)=1,$$

the divergence test tells us that it diverges. However if we take the harmonic series

$$\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1}{n},$$

we have that

$$\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{1}{n}=0,$$

but the series still diverges (which can be checked using, for example, the integral test). What we can conclude is thus that

  • If $\lim_{n\to\infty}a_n\neq0$, then $\sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n$ diverges.
  • If $\lim_{n\to\infty}a_n=0$, then $\sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n$ could either converge or diverge, but we cannot conclude anything.