The implicit domain of an integral

calculusfunctionsimproper-integralsintegration

The derivative of $f(x) = \ln(x)$ is $\frac{1}{x}$, with domain $(0, \infty)$. The derivative implicitly has the domain of $f(x)$.

Reversing the direction, the indefinite integral / antiderivative

$$
\int \frac{1}{x}\,dx
$$

is solved by Khan with the answer $\ln(|x|) + C$ where $x \ne 0$. As opposed to the naive answer $\ln(x)$ which would have to be limited to $x > 0$.

I was wondering whether we should implicitly assume indefinite integrals are to be solved for the maximum possible domain? Any tips/corrections on how domains work with derivatives vs integrals is welcome.

Best Answer

The domain of an antiderivative function is trivially the subset of the domain of the integrand where it is integrable.


I would rather write a general indefinite integral of $\dfrac 1x$ as

$$\log(|x|)+C+C'u(x)$$ where $u$ denotes a Heaviside step.

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