The difference between using $(\lambda I – A)$ and $(A – \lambda I)$ when finding eigenvalues and eigenvectors

diagonalizationeigenvalues-eigenvectorslinear algebra

I am likely going to tutor a course in linear algebra in the coming semester, so I am brushing up on my concepts right now, which are a little rusty as I last touched linear algebra more than three years ago.

I was practicing a question on diagonalization and was stuck halfway.

I would like to find the eigenvectors of
$$A = \begin{bmatrix}
-2 & 6 \\
-2 & 5
\end{bmatrix}.$$

I start by finding the eigenvalues of $A$, which are $\lambda = 1$ and $\lambda = 2$.

Next, I find the eigenvector associated with each of the eigenvalues, which I recall to be the solutions to the nullspace of $(\lambda I – A)$.

Now, I let $\lambda = 1$ and obtain
$$\begin{bmatrix}
3 & 6 \\
-2 & -4
\end{bmatrix},$$

which solve to give
$$\begin{pmatrix}
-2 \\
1
\end{pmatrix}.$$

However, the eigenvector associated with $\lambda = 1$ is, instead,
$$\begin{pmatrix}
2 \\
1
\end{pmatrix}.$$

I realised that the solution solved for the nullspace of $(A – \lambda I)$, whereas I solved for the nullspace of $(\lambda I – A)$. As far as I recall, in terms of finding eigenvalues and eigenvectors, it does not matter whether I use $(\lambda I – A)$ or $(A – \lambda I)$.

Where have I gone wrong?

Any intuitive explanations or suggestions will be greatly appreciated 🙂

Edit

As it turns out, my concepts have not failed me but I was just a little careless in my calculations. Thank you to those who took their time to point out where I have gone wrong!

Best Answer

There is no difference, as $A_{\lambda}x=0$ is equivalent to $(-A_{\lambda})x=0$ for any matrix $A_{\lambda}$.

In terms of computation, $A-\lambda I$ is easier as it keeps the off-diagonal elements unchanged, and in theory $\det(\lambda I - A)$ is better as it's always a monic polynomial.

You made the mistake in computing $\lambda I - A$ for $\lambda =1$: You forgot to put a minus sign before the off-diagonal elements.