The Definition of Orthogonal Complement

linear algebra

In Linear Algebra Done Right by Axler, the author defines the orthogonal complement as follows:

If $U$ is a subset of a vector space $V$, then the orthogonal complement of $U$, denoted by $U^\perp$, is the set of all vectors in $V$ that are orthogonal to every vector in $U$:
$$U^{\perp}=\{v\in V : \langle v, u\rangle = 0 \quad\forall u\in U\}$$

Then, he says "for example, if $U$ is a line in $\mathbb{R}^3$, then $U^\perp$ is the plane containing the origin that is perpendicular to $U$".
Below this comment, there is a theorem that says that for any subset $U$ of $V$, $U\cap U^\perp \subset \{0\}$.

I have some questions and confusions.

  1. Is it common to define the orthogonal complement for any subset of $V$ instead of a subspace of $V$?
  2. From the example he mentioned, if $U$ is a line not going through the origin and $U^\perp$ is the plane containing the origin that is perpendicular to $U$, I would expect that there would be an intersection of $U$ and $U^\perp$ which is not the origin. But the theorem implies this cannot happen.
  3. Graphically, how could one picture $U$ and $U^\perp$ such that $U\cap U^\perp=\emptyset$?

All of these questions will be answered if we define the orthogonal complement only for a subspace, not for any set. I wonder what his intension was to define it for an arbitrary subset.

Best Answer

If $U$ is a line NOT going through the origin in ${\mathbb R}^3$, then $U^{\bot}$ is a line going through the origin and perpendicular to the plane containing $U$ and the origin. That would be an example when $U \cap U^{\bot} = \emptyset$. The reason is that $U^{\bot} = (sp(U))^{\bot}$, where $sp(U)$ is the span of $U$ - the smallest linear subspace containing the vectors in $U$: if a vector $v$ is perpendicular to all vectors in $U$, then it is perpendicular to all linear combinations of vectors in $U$.

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