Some problematic points in your proof:
Proof: let $\{a_1,a_2,...,a_i,v_1,v_2...v_n\}$ be basis for $W_1$, then $\dim(W_1)= i+n$ and $\{b_1,b_2,...,b_j,v_1,v_2...v_n\}$ be basis for $W_2$, then $\dim(W_2)= j+n$ .
You are missing some fundamental information. What are $i,j,n$? Why do both bases contain the same vectors $v_1,\dots,v_n$?
the definition of sum of two subspaces tells us that the basis of the sum is a combination of those two subspaces,
Presumably, you mean "a combination of those two bases". In any case, the term "a combination of" is too vague for this statement to be correct.
which is $\dim(W_1+W_2)= i +j+n$. Hence we can arrive that $W_1+W_2$ is finite-dimensional.
Since the both subspaces have n elements in common, so $\dim(W_1 \cap W_2)= n$.
It is not true that the two subspace have $n$ elements in common. If we're talking about vector spaces over $\Bbb R$ or $\Bbb C$, then the subspaces should have either infinitely many elements or one element in common.
A correct proof, in which I have attempted to parallel yours as much as possible.
Let $v_1,\dots,v_n$ be a basis of $W_1 \cap W_2$. Since $W_1 \cap W_2 \subseteq W_1$, we can extend this to a basis $v_1,\dots,v_n,a_1,\dots,a_i$ of $W_1$. Similarly, let $v_1,\dots,v_n,b_1,\dots,b_j$ be a basis of $W_2$. It is clear that the union of these bases,
$$
\mathcal B = \{v_1,\dots,v_n,a_1,\dots,a_i,b_1,\dots,b_j\}
$$
is a spanning set of $W_1 + W_2$. In order to show that this is a basis, we must also show that $\mathcal B$ is linearly independent.
One we have proven the claim that $\mathcal B$ is indeed a basis, we may simply count the elements of each basis to find
$$
\dim(W_1 \cap W_2) = n, \quad \dim(W_1) = n+i, \quad \\
\dim(W_2) = n+j, \quad \dim(W_1 + W_2) = n+i+j.
$$
We can then verify the desired result by plugging these in to the desired equation.
I think your proof is generally fine.
You should fix a typo when you define the $T_i$ where you say $i\in\{1,\dots,n\}$.
It should be $i\in\{1,\dots,m\}$.
You should make it clear that your definition of the linear transformation $T_{m+1}$ is with regards to the base $B$.
Moreover, you don't need to introduce a basis of $S$, since $S\subset W$ is the span of a finite set and hence must be finite-dimensional.
The rest of your argument works perfectly well just from the fact that $\text{Im}(T_{m+1})\not\subset S$.
Best Answer
Yes, this proof is valid. The one thing I would say is that your definition of $T_i$ is somewhat incomplete. You could say,
Or, even better, you could say,
This is mostly a stylistic point. I get the impression from what you've written that you understand that you can construct linear maps from bases, but technically what you've written down as the definition of $T_i$ is incomplete.