I have an equation given in the following form:
$$D_{l,m} = \int_{\mathbf{\Omega}}^{} \mathrm{d}\Omega \ Y_{l,m}(\mathbf{\hat{s}})\int_{\mathbf{\Omega'}}^{} \mathrm{d}\Omega' \ K(\mathbf{\hat{s}} \cdot \mathbf{\hat{s}'}) \ w(\mathbf{\hat{s}'}) \tag{1}$$
where the vector symbol $\mathbf{\hat{s}}$ denotes a
pair of variables $\theta$, $\phi$ to be, respectively, the polar and azimuthal angles specifying
a point on the unit sphere with reference to a coordinate system at its center. Similarly, the vector symbol $\mathbf{\hat{s}'}$ denotes a
pair of variables $\theta'$, $\phi'$ and $\mathrm{d}\Omega=\sin\theta \ \mathrm{d}\theta \ \mathrm{d}\phi$.
By expanding $w(\mathbf{\hat{s}'})$ using spherical harmonics we get
$$\ w(\mathbf{\hat{s}'}) = \sum_{l'=0}^{\infty} \sum_{m'=-l'}^{l} W_{l',m'} \ Y_{l',m'}(\mathbf{\hat{s}'}) \tag{2}$$
where $ W_{l',m'}$ are the coeffecients.
Inserting $(2)$ in $(1)$ we get
$$D_{l,m} = \sum_{l'=0}^{\infty} \sum_{m'=-l'}^{l} W_{l',m'} \int_{\mathbf{\Omega}}^{} \mathrm{d}\Omega \ Y_{l,m}(\mathbf{\hat{s}})\int_{\mathbf{\Omega'}}^{} \mathrm{d}\Omega' \ Y_{l',m'}(\mathbf{\hat{s}'}) \ K(\mathbf{\hat{s}} \cdot \mathbf{\hat{s}'}) \tag{3}$$
The kernel $K(\mathbf{\hat{s}} \cdot \mathbf{\hat{s}'})$ is defined as
$$ K(\mathbf{\hat{s}} \cdot \mathbf{\hat{s}'}) = k(\mathbf{\hat{s}} \cdot \mathbf{\hat{s}'}) \ \delta(\mathbf{\hat{s}} \cdot \mathbf{\hat{s}'}-a) \tag{4}$$
where $k$ is some function of $ \mathbf{\hat{s}}$ and $ \mathbf{\hat{s}'}$.
Inserting $(4)$ in ($3$) gives
$$D_{l,m} = \sum_{l'=0}^{\infty} \sum_{m'=-l'}^{l} W_{l',m'} \int_{\mathbf{\Omega}}^{} \mathrm{d}\Omega \ Y_{l,m}(\mathbf{\hat{s}}) \int_{\mathbf{\Omega'}}^{} \mathrm{d}\Omega' \ Y_{l',m'}(\mathbf{\hat{s}'}) \ k(\mathbf{\hat{s}} \cdot \mathbf{\hat{s}'}) \ \delta(\mathbf{\hat{s}} \cdot \mathbf{\hat{s}'}-a) \tag{5}$$
My question is, how can I use the orthogonality of spherical harmonics or any other form/ relation of $Y_{l,m}(\mathbf{\hat{s}})$ and $Y_{l',m'}(\mathbf{\hat{s}'})$ to get rid of the integrals?. I know I can use addition theorem for spherical harmonics as:
$$P_l''(\mathbf{\hat{s}} \cdot \mathbf{\hat{s}'}) = \frac{4\pi}{2l''+1} \sum_{m''=-l''}^{l''} Y_{l'',m''}(\mathbf{\hat{s}}) \ Y_{l'',m''}(\mathbf{\hat{s}'}) \tag{6}$$
but how can I use some kind of a sifting property of delta functions to remove the integrals in equation $(5)$?
Best Answer
I won't give the full formulae (all those indices!) but I believe the answer is simple enough to explain without them. Your strategy is correct, and you already gave the answer: it is the orthogonality of the spherical harmonics (not the sifting property of the delta function in the definition of $K$) which enables you to do the angular integrals.