Showing $P\left(\bigcap_{n=1}^{\infty} B_n\right)=1$ if $P(B_n)=1$ for every $n$

probabilityprobability theory

Resnick – Probability path 2.11:

Let $\{B_n, n\geq 1\}$ be events with $P(B_n)=1$ for every $n$. Show that

$$P\left(\bigcap_{n=1}^{\infty} B_n\right)=1$$

I was thinking to use a sequence such that it is equal to $\bigcap\limits_{n=1}^{\infty} B_n$, for $n$ going to infinity, and then apply the continuity property of a probability measure. Although, since it is not mentioned about the limit of $B_n$, neither if it is non increasing, I don't know how to proceed.
Any help would be appreciated. Thanks!

Best Answer

Consider the probability measure. The complement of the intersection is the union of complements. Each complement is of measure 0. Then their union is also of measure 0. Hence the intersection is of measure 1.

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