The question is as follows:
Let $X = \{(x, y, z) \in \Bbb R^3 : z = x + y\}$. Show that $X$ is not definable in $(\Bbb R, <)$.
I tried to show that $(\Bbb R, <)$ has only two subsets that are definable, namely $\Bbb R$ and the empty set using an automorphism argument. Since $X$ is neither of these sets it is not definable in $(\Bbb R, <)$. I feel like this approach is wrong. Any help would be greatly appreciated.
Best Answer
Hint: Show that for any finite subset $A$ of $\mathbb{R}$, and any element $b\notin A$, there is an automorphism of $(\mathbb{R},<)$ which fixes the elements of $A$ but moves $b$.
Now obtain a contradiction to the above fact under the assumption that $X$ is definable.