Prove that if $\sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n$ is convergent, then the series $$\sum_{n=1}^\infty \left(\frac{n+1}{n}\right)a_n$$ is also convergent.
Edit: Originally, I thought about doing a limit comparison test, where your $b_n$ would get $\frac{1}{n}$. Then that limit of $\left(\frac{n(n+1)}{n^2}\right)$ would be 1. So the series turns is comparable to $a_n$. But it seems wrong to ignore $a_n$ when doing the limit comparison.
Edit 2: My mind doesn't function so the attempt of the above edit isn't good for the problem.
Best Answer
Because
$$ \sum \left|(\frac{n+1}{n} ) a_n \right| = \sum \left| \left(\frac{1}{n} + 1\right) a_n\right| < \sum |a_n| + \sum |a_n|$$
both of which converge.