Complex Analysis – Proving h(z) = ?_X f(z,t) d?(t) is Holomorphic

analysiscomplex-analysismeasure-theory

Let $\mu$ be a $\sigma-$finite measure on some measure space $X$, and $\Omega \subseteq \mathbb{C}$ be a domain. Assume that

  1. the mapping $(z,t)\in \Omega \times X \rightarrow f(z,t)\in \mathbb{C}$ is measurable

  2. for fixed $t \in X$, the function $z \mapsto f(z,t)$ holomorphic and

  3. for every compact set $K \subseteq \Omega$,

$\int_X sup_{z \in K} |f(z,t)| d\mu(t) $ is finite

Show that the function $h(z):=\int_X f(z,t) d\mu(t)$ is holomorphic in $\Omega$

Approach:
My Idea would be to use Moreas Theorem.
Thus I need to show that for every closed piecewise $C^1$ curve
$\int_{\gamma}h(z)dz=0$.

$\int_{\gamma}h(z)dz=\int_{\gamma}\int_X f(z,t) d\mu(t)dz$

If I could change the order of Integration I would get
$\int_{\gamma}h(z)dz=\int_X \int_{\gamma} f(z,t) dz d\mu(t)$.
Then $\int_{\gamma} f(z,t) dz$ is the integral of a holomorphic function since $t$ is fixed in this case.
By Cauchy Theorem I would get $\int_{\gamma} f(z,t) dz=0$, and thus $\int_X 0 d\mu(t)=0$.

My main problem seems to be that I don't know how to argue that I can interchange both integrals. I assume it has to do with 3).

Question: Is my approach even correct? If yes, what is the reason to interchange the integrals?

Best Answer

Let $p\in \Omega$, and let $\varepsilon>0$ be small enough so that $B(p,\varepsilon) \subset \Omega$. $\DeclareMathOperator{\d}{d} \newcommand{\dx}{\d\!}$ Let us show that $h$ is holomorphic on $B(p,\varepsilon)$. Since $B(p,\varepsilon)$ is simply connected, by Morera's it suffices to show that for every piecewise differentiable closed curve $\gamma$ in $B(p,\varepsilon)$, $\int_\gamma h(z)\dx z = 0$.

Let $\gamma\colon [a,b] \to B(p,\varepsilon)$ be such a closed curve, and up to a reparametrization, assume that $|\gamma'(s)|=1$ for all $s$. Since $|f(\gamma(s),t)\gamma'(s)| = |f(\gamma(s),t)| \geqslant 0$ on $B(p,\varepsilon)\times X$, we have \begin{align} \int_{[a,b]} \int_X |f(\gamma(s),t)\gamma'(s)|\dx\mu(t)\dx s &= \int_X\int_{[a,b]} |f(\gamma(s),t)|\dx s\dx\mu(t) \\ &\leqslant (b-a)\int_X \sup_{z\in \gamma([a,b])} |f(z,t)|\dx\mu(t) \\ & <+ \infty \end{align} by the third assumption. It follows by Fubini's Theorem that \begin{align} \int_{[a,b]} \int_X f(\gamma(s),t)\gamma'(s)\dx\mu(t)\dx s & = \int_X \int_{[a,b]} f(\gamma(s),t)\gamma'(s)\dx s\dx\mu(t) \\ &= \int_X \int_{\gamma}f(z,t)\dx z \dx\mu(t) \\ &= \int_X 0 \dx\mu(t) \\ &= 0, \end{align} the last equality being true since $f(\cdot,t)$ is holomorphic on $B(p,\varepsilon)$ which is simply connected. Hence, $\int_\gamma h(z)\dx z = 0$. This being true for all $\gamma$, $h$ is holomorphic on $B(p,\varepsilon)$. In particular, $h$ is holomorphic at $p$. This being true for all $p \in \Omega$, $h$ is holomorphic on $\Omega$.