Ruled surface over $\Bbb{P}^1$ contains the affine plane $\Bbb{A}^2$

algebraic-curvesalgebraic-geometryriemann-surfaces

I was reading Algebraic Geometry over the Complex Numbers written by Arapura. In chapter 11, page 191.

Define the ruled surface to be a $\Bbb{P}^1$ bundle over $C$ for some complex algebraic curve $C$, such that locally it isomorphic to $U_i\times \Bbb{P}^1$ for Zariski open cover $\{U_i\}$ of the curve $C$.

I want to prove that they are birational equivalent to $\Bbb{P}^2$, the book says since the ruled surface and $\Bbb{P}^2$ both contain $\Bbb{A}^2$, therefore we can get the results.

It's not very obvious to me why the ruled surface contains $\Bbb{A}^2$, I will try to see what happens if $C = \Bbb{P}^1$, then the ruled surface is simply $\Bbb{P}^1 \times \Bbb{P}^1$, then it contains $\Bbb{A}^1 \times \Bbb{A}^1$ but it seems not to be $\Bbb{A}^2$?

Best Answer

The product topology (of Zariski topolgies) on $\mathbb{A}^1\times \mathbb{A}^1$ is not the same as the Zariski topology on $\mathbb{A}^2$, but topological product of Zariski topology is not what is usually meant by $\mathbb{A}^1 \times \mathbb{A}^1$, $\mathbb{P}^1 \times \mathbb{P}^1$ or $U_i \times \mathbb{P}^1$ in the definition of a $\mathbb{P}^1$ bundle. In Arapura, look at Proposition 2.4.6 for the definition of product of (pre)varieties.

The analytic topology on $\mathbb{A}^2$ is on the other hand the same as the product of the analytic topologies on $\mathbb{A}^1$ and $\mathbb{A}^2$ (and more generally for $X \times Y$).