Rudin 2.2 Solution Explanation

real-analysis

The question is to prove that the set of all algebraic numbers is countable. He gives the hint that for every positive integer N there are only finitely many equations with n + $\vert a_0 \vert$ + $\vert a_1 \vert$ + … + $\vert a_n \vert$ = N. I looked at the solution given at https://minds.wisconsin.edu/bitstream/handle/1793/67009/rudin%20ch%202.pdf?sequence=10&isAllowed=y but I'm having trouble understanding it. They let $A_n$ be the set of numbers satisfying the equation above, and then say that the set of algebraic numbers is the union of $A_n$ from 2 to oo. But that's the part I'm having trouble with. How is the set of algebraic numbers equal to this union of the $A_n$? And why do they start at 2 rather than 1?

Best Answer

$A_N$ (not $A_n$) is not the set of numbers satisfying the equation $n+\vert a_0\vert+\vert a_1\vert+\cdots+\vert a_n \vert=N$. It is the set of numbers satisfying a polynomial equation $\sum_{i=1}^n a_ix^i=0$ for some coefficients $a_0,\ldots,a_n$ which satisfy the equation $n+\vert a_0\vert+\vert a_1\vert+\cdots+\vert a_n \vert=N$.

And such a polynomial equation has at most $n$ solutions, so each $A_N$ is finite.