Residue field of composite of two field

abstract-algebranumber theory

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[Question]

I know that $K'\cdot K''$ is an unramified extension of $K$ but I don't know why $K'\cdot K''$ have a residue field $k'$.

is it always true that $K_1\cdot K_2$ have a residue field $k_1 \cdot k_2$?
(where $k_1,k_2$ are residue fields of $K_1, K_2$)

I think that if we prove the proposition 7.50 , then we can use " $K_1\cdot K_2$ have a residue field $k_1 \cdot k_2$" in this situation.

However, we can't use that fact while proving this proposition.

How can I prove this?

Thank you for your attention.

reference(J.S. Milne's Algebraic Number Theory) and this post
1: Strange reasoning of unramified extensions having same residue fields are the same.

Best Answer

For $K/\Bbb{Q}_p$ a finite extension then $F/K$ is unramified iff $F=K(\zeta_n)=K(\zeta_{q-1})$ with $p\nmid n$ and $q= |O_F/(\pi_F)|$. This is the main application of Hensel lemma.

When $E/K,E'/K$ are ramified then it is not always the case that the residue field of $EE'$ is the smallest field contained those of $E,E'$, try with $E=\Bbb{Q}_2(2^{1/3}),E'=\Bbb{Q}_2(\zeta_3 2^{1/3})$.

When $E'/K$ is unramified then $EE'=E(\zeta_{q-1})$ has residue field $O_E/(\pi_E)(\zeta_{q-1})$.

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