Relationship between $\small (\infty,1)$-categories and simplicially enriched categories

category-theorysimplicial-stuffsoft-question

What are the links between $\small{(\infty,1)}$-categories and simplicially enriched categories? For example I don't understand the "Idea" section on this nLab page

https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/homotopy+category+of+an+%28infinity%2C1%29-category

When they say that $\mathscr C = LC$ I can only assume that there is a canonical "equivalence" between $\small (\infty,1)$-categories and simplicially enriched categories but I can't find any info on such a thing.

Best Answer

The is a model structure on simplicial sets whose fibrant objects are "quasicategories", the simplicial sets in which every inner horn has a filler. If the 0-simplices are thought of as objects of a category and the 1-simplices as morphisms, then the horn filler condition gives a sense in which a quasicategory admits composites of all arrows, with composition associative up to a homotopy, which is itself well defined up to a higher homotopy, which is...and so on. The latter is the primeval concept of an $(\infty,1)$-category, and quasicategories are the most used model.

In fact the first model category for $(\infty,1)$-categories that was introduced was that of Bergner, which is on the category of simplicially enriched categories. This models an $(\infty,1)$-category as a "category" with morphisms of all dimensions, all admitting strictly associative compositions. It is very far from obvious that everything we'd like to call an $(\infty,1)$-category is equivalent to something of this form, but in fact this is the case: there is a Quillen equivalence between the model categories of simplicial categories and of quasicategories, showing that every $(\infty,1)$-category (viewed as a quasicategory) can be viewed as a simplicially enriched category.

The sense in which a quasicategory $Q$ is "equivalent" to some simplically enriched category $\mathcal C$ is that the homotopy categories $\mathrm{Ho}(Q)$ and $\mathrm{Ho}(\mathcal C)$ are equivalent, but also, roughly speaking, that $Q$ and $\mathcal C$ have the same mapping spaces. One can't formalize this directly by asking that there be a map inducing such equivalences $Q\to \mathcal C$, as they don't live in the same category, which is the reason for the introduction of the Quillen equivalence between the model structures.

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