Quick question about Gram-Schmidt and orthonormalization on polynomials

abstract-algebracalculusgram-schmidtlinear algebrareal-analysis

If we have a vector basis, when we perform Gram-Schmidt we then divide every vector by it's norm.

But if we have a polynomial basis, we can still write them as vectors (isomorphism) and perform Gram-Schmidt, but should we divide those vectors by their norm, since the norm of a polynomial does not make sense.

What would then be the correct way to orthonormalize polynomial basis.

Best Answer

Yes there is a norm in these spaces, given in general by an integral.

The most usual norm in the vector space of polynomials $\mathbb{R}_n[X]$ of degree less or equal to $n$ is derived from this dot product

$$(f|g):=\int_a^b f(t)g(t)dt$$

giving

$$(f|f)=\|f\|^2=\int_a^b f(t)^2dt \tag{1}$$

where $(a,b)$ may be $(0,1), \ (-1,1) $ etc...

A more general kind of dot product is:

$$(f|g):=\int_a^b f(t)g(t)w(t)dt \ \implies \ (f|f)=\|f\|^2=\int_a^b f(t)^2 w(t)dt$$

where $w$ is a weight function, i.e., a positive integrable function.


Let us take the case of

$$p_1(x)=(x-1), p_2(x)=(x^2-1) \in \mathbb{R}_2[x]$$

with $(a,b)=(-1,1)$ in (1).

They aren't orthogonal because

$$(p_1|p_2)=\frac12-1 = -\frac12 \ne 0 \tag{2}$$

Now let us keep $p_1$ fixed and look for $\lambda$ such that :

$$(p_1|(p_2+\lambda p_1))=0 \ \iff \ (p_1|p_2)+\lambda \|p_1\|^2=0$$ \iff $$\lambda=-\frac{(p_1|p_2)}{\|p_1\|^2}$$

As the numerator of $\lambda$ in (3) has been computed in (2), it remains to compute the denominator:

$$\|p_1\|^2=\int_{-1}^1 (x-1)^2 dx=\dfrac83$$

and so on if you have other vectors...

Another example here.

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