Question about Schur’s Lemma

finite-groupsgroup-theoryrepresentation-theory

Maybe a very dumb question about Schur's Lemma, but somehow this confuses me.

Let $G, H$ be groups. A function $f: G\rightarrow H$ is called group isomorphism, if $f(g\cdot h) = f(g)*f(h)$, and $f$ is bijective.

Let $(D_1,V_1)$ and $(D_2,V_2)$ be irreducible representations of a group $G$, and $A \in L(V_1 \rightarrow V_2)$ a linear function. If $A D_1(g) = D_2(g)A \hspace{5mm} \forall g \in G$, than A is either the $0-$ map or an isomorphism.

So in the proof of Schur's Lemma, (for example here) it is shown, that A has to be either the $0-$function or bijective. But what is the argument to say that it is an bijective group homomorphism (= group isomorphism)? Do I have a wrong understanding of isomorphism?

Best Answer

There are many types of homomorphisms/isomorphisms in mathematics. Here the meaning is not an isomorphism of groups, but an isomorphism of representations. Given two representations $(V_1,\pi_1), (V_2,\pi_2)$ an isomorphism is an invertible linear map $A:V_1\to V_2$ such that $A(g.v)=g.(Av)$ for all $g\in G, v\in V_1$.

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