Question about a proof of Second Derivatve Test

calculusreal-analysis

Partial Statement: Let $f$ be defined in a neighborhood of $c$ with $f'(c) = 0$. Then $f''(c) > 0 \implies f(c)$ is a local minimum of $f$

Proof: Suppose $f$ is defined in a neighborhood of $c$ with $f'(c) = 0, \ f''(c) > 0 $. $\color{red}{\text{It can be shown}}$ there's punctured neighborhood of $N = (c – r, c) \cup (c, c + s)$ of $c$ s.t. $\displaystyle{\frac{f'(x) – f'(c)}{x – c} > 0}$ for $x \in N$ meaning $f'(x) < 0$ for $x \in (c – r, c)$ and $f'(x) > 0$ for $x \in (c, c + s)$. It follows $c$ is a local minimum as $f$ dips towards $c$ from the left and grows back up on the right of $c$.

My question is about the $\color{red}{\text{part in red of the quote above}}$. How does that follow? Here below is my attempt. If incorrect, what would be a better way to show that? Thanks.

By definition, $f$ is differentiable at $c$ if $\displaystyle{\forall\varepsilon > 0, \exists \delta>0 \ \left|\frac{f(x) – f(c)}{x – c} – f'(c)\right| < \varepsilon}$ for any $x$ with $0<|x – c| < \delta.$ Then $\displaystyle{\frac{f(x) – f(c)}{x – c} = f'(c)} > 0$. Applying the definition above one more time we get $\displaystyle{\frac{f'(x) – f'(c)}{x – c} = f''(c)} > 0$.

Best Answer

Per the part in red:

We have $f''(c) > 0$, or

$$\lim_{x\to c} \frac{f'(x) - f'(c)}{x-c} = f''(c) > 0$$

Let's use $\frac{f''(c)}{2}$ as our $\varepsilon$. There is some $\delta$ such that for all $x$ if

$$0 < |x - c| < \delta \implies \left|\frac{f'(x) - f'(c)}{x-c} - f''(c)\right| < \frac{f''(c)}{2}$$ or $$-\frac{f''(c)}{2} < \frac{f'(x) - f'(c)}{x-c} - f''(c)< \frac{f''(c)}{2} $$ $$\frac{f'(x) - f'(c)}{x-c} > \frac{f''(c)}{2} > 0$$

In order for the LHS to be $> 0$, for $x>c$ we must have $f'(x) > f'(c) = 0$.

Similarly, for $x < c$ we have $f'(x) < 0$.

Thus, $f$ is decreasing on some interval to the left of $c$ and increasing to the right, and so, $c$ is a local minimum.

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