Pullback and wedge product

differential-formsdifferential-geometryexterior-algebra

I am essentially asking the same question as this one. My goal is to prove

$$f^*(\omega\wedge\theta)=f^*\omega\wedge f^*\theta.$$

The step I'm missing is precisely the one in the linked question, that is, why is

$$(\omega\wedge \theta)(f_*(v_1),\cdots ,f_*(v_p),f_*(w_1),\cdots ,f_*(w_q))$$

the same as

$$\omega(f_∗(v_1),⋯,f_∗(v_p))\wedge \theta(f_*(w_1),⋯,f_∗(w_q))?$$

The problem is already that I do not really know how to evaluate something of the form
$$(\omega\wedge\theta)(v_1,\dots,v_p,\,w_1,\dots,w_q)$$
in general. I assume that, what I need for that, is the "summation formula for wedge products", as mentioned in the linked question. What formula is this? Or maybe, to get started, how would you even compute
$$(\mathrm dx\wedge \mathrm d y)(\partial/\partial y,\partial/\partial x),$$
as is mentioned in the linked post's comments?

Best Answer

First, let's remind ourselves of the action of a tensor product. For any $\omega \in \Lambda^p(V^\star), \theta \in \Lambda^q(V^\star)$, we have

$$ (\omega \otimes \theta)(v_1, \dots, v_p, v_{p+1}, \dots, v_{p+q}) = \omega(v_1, \dots, v_p) \times \theta(v_{p+1}, \dots, v_{p+q}).$$

Let's also recall the definition of the $\text{Alt}$ operator. For any $\lambda \in \Lambda^n(V^\star)$, we have

$$ \text{Alt}(\lambda)(v_1, \dots, v_n) = \frac{1}{n!}\sum_{\sigma \in S_n}\text{sgn}(\sigma)\lambda(v_{\sigma(1)}, \dots, v_{\sigma(n)}). $$

The wedge product is constructed by applying the $\text{Alt}$ operator to the tensor product, i.e. $$ \omega \wedge\theta = \frac{(p+q)!}{p!q!}\text{Alt}(\omega \otimes \theta).$$

So $$ (\omega \wedge \theta)(v_1, \dots, v_p, v_{p+1}, \dots, v_{p+q}) = \frac{1}{p!q!} \sum_{\sigma \in S_{p+q}} \text{sgn} (\sigma) \omega(v_{\sigma(1)}, \dots, v_{\sigma(p)}) \theta(v_{\sigma(p+1)}, \dots, v_{\sigma(p+q)}). $$

Thus $f^\star(\omega \wedge \theta)(v_1, \dots, v_p, v_{p+1}, \dots, v_{p+q}) = (f^\star\omega \wedge f^\star\theta)(v_1, \dots, v_p, v_{p+1}, \dots, v_{p+q})$, since both of these quantities are equal to $$ \frac{1}{p!q!} \sum_{\sigma \in S_{p+q}} \text{sgn} (\sigma) \omega(f_\star (v_{\sigma(1)}), \dots, f_\star(v_{\sigma(p)})) \theta(f_\star(v_{\sigma(p+1)}), \dots, f_\star(v_{\sigma(p+q)})). $$


Edit: I notice you've added an extra question at the bottom of your post about $dx \wedge dy \left(\frac{\partial}{\partial y}, \frac{\partial}{\partial x} \right)$. This is a great example for illustration, so let's work through it. The calculation is:

\begin{align*} dx \wedge dy \left(\tfrac{\partial}{\partial y}, \tfrac{\partial}{\partial x} \right) & = \frac{1}{1!\times 1!} \times \left( dx \left(\tfrac{\partial}{\partial y}\right) dy \left( \tfrac{\partial}{\partial x} \right) - dx \left(\tfrac{\partial}{\partial x}\right) dy \left(\tfrac{\partial}{\partial y} \right) \right) \\ & = 1 \times (0 - 1) \\ & = -1 \end{align*}

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