Proving Unique Solution to The Following System of Two Non-Linear Equations and 2 Unknown

nonlinear systemnumerical methodsproblem solvingself-learningsystems of equations

I am trying to understand whether there are any theorems for showing whether a system of non-linear equations has a unique solution? I have searched a bit online already, but not finding anything concrete.

Consider the following system to non-linear equations:
$$y^3 = x + 2$$
$$y = x^3 + 1$$
So we have 2 equations and 2 unknowns. We can't analytically solve for $x,y.$ We can of course use numerical methods (such as newtons) from software like R or Matlab to determine a solution. Plotting the above equations on Desmos, I see there is a unique solutions of x = 0.736 and y = 1.39.

So the question is, suppose I just want to show above system has a unique solution, but don't care about solving for it. How can I go about doing that?

Best Answer

Substituting the second equation for $y$ into the first equation, we get $$(x^3+1)^3 = x+2 \iff (x^3+1)^3 - x - 2 = 0.$$ Now consider the polynomial $f(x) = (x^3+1)^3 - x - 2$, for which any root yields a solution to the original system. Thus we want to analyze $f$ in such a way that we can prove there is only one real root. We can see that for any $x$ with $|x| \leq \frac{1}{2}$ we have that $$ |(x^3+1)^3 - x| \leq (|x|^3+|1|)^3 + |x| \leq (|.5|^3+1)^3 + |.5| < 2,$$ and so $f$ is negative on the interval $\left[-\frac{1}{2},\frac{1}{2}\right]$. Additionally, if $-1 < x < -\frac{1}{2}$ then we have that $$(x^3+1)^3 - x < ((-.5)^3+1)^3 + 1 < 2$$ and if $-2 < x < -1$ we have that $$(x^3+1)^3 - x < ((-1)^3+1)^3 + 2 = 2.$$ Thus $f$ is negative on the interval $\left(-2,\frac{1}{2}\right]$.

Now take the derivative to get $$ f'(x) = 9x^2(x^3+1)^2 - 1,$$ and notice that $f'(x) > 0$ for every $x \in (-\infty,-2]\cup \left(\frac{1}{2},\infty\right)$. Therefore $f$ is monotonically increasing in this region. All together, we see that $f$ is negative for $x \leq \frac{1}{2}$ and monotonically increasing for all $x > \frac{1}{2}$; thus $f$ has exactly 1 real root.