Proving that span of certain set is dense

functional-analysishilbert-spaces

I wish it were true that

Let $\{e_n\}_{n\geq 1}$ be a orthonormal basis for a separable Hilbert
space $\mathcal{H}$.

If $\mathcal{F}=\{f_n\}_{n\geq 1}$, with $f_n=e_n+e_{n+1}$, then
$\overline{span}\{\mathcal{F}\}=\mathcal{H}$

My attempt was trying to see that

$\left( \overline{span}\{\mathcal{F}\}\right)^{\perp}=\mathcal{F}^{\perp} =\{0\}$, $\quad$ i.e $\quad f\in \mathcal{F}^{\perp} \implies f=0$

if $f\in \mathcal{F}^{\perp}$, then $\langle f,e_n+e_{n+1}\rangle=0$, $\forall n\in \mathbb{N}$, this means that it suffices to show that $\langle f, e_1\rangle =0$.

I'm not sure if the following is true:
$e_1 = \sum_{n\in \mathbb{N}}f_n$

if that were the case, then $\langle f, e_1 \rangle = \langle f , \sum_{n\in \mathbb{N}}f_n \rangle = \sum_{n\in \mathbb{N}}\underbrace{\langle f,f_n \rangle}_{=0} = 0$

Thank you for reading

Best Answer

If $\langle f,e_n+e_{n+1}\rangle =0$ then $$(-1)^n\langle f,e_n\rangle=(-1)^{n+1}\langle f,e_{n+1}\rangle $$ Thus the sequence $(-1)^n\langle f,e_n\rangle$ is constant. On the other hand, by the Bessel inequality it tends to $0.$ Hence $\langle f,e_n\rangle=0$ for each $n,$ which implies $f=0.$