I was wondering how can I prove the following conjecture using proof by contradiction.
If $A-B = B-A$, then it must be the case that $A=B$.
I tried to assume that $A \ne B$ and tried to show that $A-B = B-A$ still holds. However, I'm not sure how to deduce this part.
I am new to set theory and proofs, so any kind of help would be appreciated.
Best Answer
I tried to assume that $A≠B$ and tried to show that $A−B=B−A$ still holds. However, I'm not sure how to deduce this part.
Suppose there is an $a$ such that $a\in A$ and $a\notin B,$ yet $A-B = B-A$
$a\in A-B, a\notin B-A$
$A-B \ne B-A$
Contradiction!
All $a$ in $A$ are also in $B.$
And by an identical argument all $b$ in $B$ are also in $A.$
Alternatively, and a little longer for clarity.