Prove that $HK$ passes through a fixed point.

circleseuclidean-geometrygeometrytriangles

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Point $A$ lies on the perpendicular bisector of $BC$. $M$ and $N$ are points respectively in line segments $AB$ and $AC$ such that $MN$ is tangent to the incircle of $ABC$ at point $H$. $MP, NQ \perp BC$ ($P,Q \in BC$). The intersection of $MQ$ and $NP$ is point $K$. Prove that $HK$ passes through a fixed point.

It's the midpoint of $BC$, obviously, but how to prove it is more important, which I failed to do. This problem is adapted from a recent competition.

Best Answer

Ignoring vertex $A$, this becomes a problem on the inscriptable $\square BCNM$. Let $L$ be the midpoint of $\overline{BC}$. Also, let $M'$ (instead of $P$), $N'$ (instead of $Q$), $H'$, $K'$ be the projections of $M$, $N$, $H$, $K$ onto $\overline{BC}$. Let the tangent segments from $B$ and $C$ to the incircle have length $d$; let the tangent segments from $M$ and $N$ have length $m$ and $n$. Finally, define $m' := |MM'|$, $n':=|NN'|$, $m'':=|M'L|$, $n'':=|N'L|$. Without loss of generality, $m\leq n$ so that $m'\leq n'$.

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Certainly, if $m=n$, then $\overleftrightarrow{HK}$ meets $\overline{BC}$ at $L$. For $m \neq n$, we'll prove that $L$ is on $\overleftrightarrow{HK}$ by showing $\triangle HH'L\sim \triangle KK'L$ via $$|HH'||K'L|=|KK'||H'L| \tag{$\star$}$$


Parallelism and proportionality rules tell us that $$\frac{|M'H'|}{|M'N'|}=\frac{|MH|}{|MN|}=\frac{m}{m+n} \qquad |HH'|=m'+\frac{m}{m+n}(n'-m')=\frac{m'n+mn'}{m+n} \tag{1}$$ The Crossed Ladders Theorem tells us that $$\frac{1}{|KK'|}=\frac{1}{m'}+\frac{1}{n'} \quad\to\quad |KK'| = \frac{m'n'}{m'+n'} \tag{2}$$ (and, in fact, $K$ is the midpoint of the extension of $\overline{KK'}$ that meets $\overline{MN}$), whereupon some proportional thinking then yields $|M'K'|:|K'N'|=m':n'$, so that we have $$\frac{|M'K'|}{|M'N'|}=\frac{m'}{m'+n'} \tag{3}$$ Therefore, $$\begin{align} |H'L|&=|M'L|-|M'H'| = m'' - \,\frac{m}{m+n}(m''+n'') \;= \frac{m''n-mn''}{m+n} \\[6pt] |K'L|&=|M'L|-|M'K'| = m'' - \frac{m'}{m'+n'}(m''+n'')=\frac{m''n'-m'n''}{m'+n'} \end{align} \tag{4}$$ Substituting in $(\star)$, and clearing denominators, we need only verify that $$(m'n+mn')(m''n'-m'n'') = m'n'(m''n-mn'') \tag{5} $$ That is, $$\frac{m}{n}\cdot\frac{m''}{n''} = \left(\frac{m'}{n'}\right)^2 \tag{6}$$

It seems like there's a geometric mean argument to be made, but I'm not seeing it. So, writing $\theta$ for the common angle at $B$ and $C$, we have $$\frac{m}{n}\cdot\frac{d-(m+d)\cos\theta}{d-(n+d)\cos\theta} = \left(\frac{m+d}{n+d}\right)^2 \quad\to\quad (d+m)(d+n)\cos\theta = d^2 - m n \tag{7}$$ This same relation results (for $\theta \neq 0$) from the observation that there's a right triangle with hypotenuse $|MN|$ and legs $|m'-n'|$ and $m''+n''$. $$(m+n)^2 = (m'-n')^2 + (m''+n'')^2 \qquad\to\qquad (7) \tag{8}$$ This equality establishes $(\star)$ and completes the proof. $\square$


I believe there's a cleaner way to link $(6)$ and $(8)$ (or to demonstrate $(6)$ some other way) without having to show equality through $(7)$. Again, I'm not seeing it. Perhaps I'll return to this question.

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