Prove that every countable subset of the real line is Borel-Meaurable and has Lebesgue measure zero

measure-theory

I need some help clarifying this problem because I understand what is Borel-Measurable for functions, but not for set. But I guess that a set is Borel-Measurable if

i) Is measurable

ii) Is a borel set

is that correct?

In that case it is an elementary result that a subset of real number that is countable has Lebesgue measure zero, right?

So only remain that is a borel set. But this is also direct because since it is countable we can write this set $A$ as $$ A = \bigcup_{i=1}^{\infty}{\{a_i\}}$$ for every $ a_i \in A$

Thus we have a set that is the coutable union of closed set so is a borel set.

Is that correct?

Best Answer

Let $A=\{a_1,a_2,....\}$, then $A = \bigcup_{i=1}^{\infty}{\{a_i\}}$.

Each $\{a_i\}$ is closed, hence Borel-measurable. Since $A$ is a countable union of Borel-measurable sets, $A$ is Borel-measurable.

If $ \lambda$ is the Lebesgue- measure, then $ \lambda (\{a_i\})=0$ (why ?). Hence $\lambda(A)=0.$